HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. Heparin 20,000 units in 500 ml D5W at 50 ml/hour has been infusing for 5.5 hours. How much heparin has the client received?
- A. 11,000 units.
- B. 13,000 units.
- C. 15,000 units.
- D. 17,000 units.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the total amount of heparin received, multiply the infusion rate (50 ml/hour) by the total infusion time (5.5 hours). This results in 275 ml of the solution infused. Since there are 20,000 units of heparin in 500 ml, there are 800 units per ml. Therefore, 275 ml contains 220,000 units. However, the heparin is diluted in 500 ml, so the client has received half of this amount, which is 110,000 units. Therefore, the correct answer is 11,000 units. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.
2. While auscultating a client's abdomen, a nurse hears a blowing sound over the aorta. The nurse should identify this sound as which of the following?
- A. Gallop
- B. Bruit
- C. Thrill
- D. Murmur
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bruit. A bruit is a blowing sound indicating turbulent blood flow, often heard over the aorta. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A gallop is a cardiac sound resembling the sound of a galloping horse. A thrill is a vibration felt on palpation, and a murmur is a swooshing or whooshing sound heard during auscultation of the heart or blood vessels. In this scenario, the blowing sound over the aorta specifically indicates a bruit, which signifies turbulent blood flow and should be further assessed by the healthcare provider.
3. Upon completing the admission documents, the nurse learns that the 87-year-old client does not have an advance directive. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Record the lack of advance directive on the chart
- B. Give information about advance directives
- C. Assume that the client wishes a full code
- D. Refer this issue to the unit secretary
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to give information about advance directives to the client. By providing this information, the nurse empowers the client to make an informed decision about their care preferences. Choice A is incorrect because simply recording the lack of advance directive does not address the client's need for information. Choice C is incorrect because assuming the client wishes a full code without discussing it with them is not appropriate and may not align with the client's wishes. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should directly address the issue with the client rather than involving another staff member.
4. The patient is immobilized after undergoing hip replacement surgery. Which finding will alert the nurse to monitor for hemorrhage in this patient?
- A. Thick, tenacious pulmonary secretions
- B. Low-molecular-weight heparin doses
- C. SCDs wrapped around the legs
- D. Elastic stockings (TED hose)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, which is low-molecular-weight heparin doses. After hip replacement surgery, patients are at risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility. Heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin are commonly used for prophylaxis against DVT. Monitoring for hemorrhage is crucial when administering anticoagulants. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to monitoring for hemorrhage in this scenario. Thick, tenacious pulmonary secretions (Choice A) may indicate respiratory issues, SCDs (Choice C) help prevent DVT but do not directly relate to hemorrhage monitoring, and elastic stockings (TED hose) (Choice D) are used for DVT prophylaxis but do not alert to hemorrhage.
5. A client admitted with abdominal pain tells the nurse that her father died recently, and she begins crying while talking about him. The nurse determines that the client’s temperature is 39.2°C (102.6°F), her abdomen is soft without tenderness, and her menses are overdue by 2 days. To which observation should the nurse give priority attention?
- A. The client’s temperature
- B. The client’s menses are overdue
- C. The client’s crying
- D. The client’s soft abdomen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An overdue menses might indicate a potential cause of abdominal pain, especially in the context of recent emotional stress. While the client's temperature, crying, and soft abdomen are important observations, the priority should be given to the overdue menses as it could provide crucial information related to the abdominal pain and the client's overall health status. The emotional distress may have a secondary impact on the physical symptoms, making the menstrual status a critical observation to address first.
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