HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. A 54-year-old male client and his wife were informed this morning that he has terminal cancer. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most appropriate?
- A. Ask the wife how she would like to participate in the client's care
- B. Provide the wife with information about hospice
- C. Encourage the wife to visit during the treatment process
- D. Refer her to a support group for family members of those with terminal cancer
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, it is crucial to involve the wife in the care of the client to provide support and empower her. Asking the wife how she would like to participate allows her to be actively involved in decision-making and caregiving. Providing information about hospice (choice B) might be premature as the couple may still be digesting the diagnosis. Encouraging the wife to visit during the treatment process (choice C) may not address her immediate need for involvement and support. Referring her to a support group for family members (choice D) is helpful but involving her directly in the client's care is a more immediate and personalized approach.
2. A client is grieving the loss of her partner and expresses thoughts of not wanting to live. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request additional support for the client from her family.
- B. Ask the client if she plans to harm herself.
- C. Inform the client that feeling this way is a normal response to grief.
- D. Suggest that the client seek counseling for support.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to ask the client if she plans to harm herself. This is crucial to assess the client's risk of self-harm or suicide. Providing immediate safety and appropriate interventions is the priority when a client expresses such thoughts. Requesting additional support from the family (Choice A) may be helpful but does not address the immediate safety concern. Informing the client that feeling this way is normal (Choice C) may invalidate her feelings and does not address the safety risk. Suggesting counseling (Choice D) may be beneficial in the long term but is not the immediate priority when assessing for self-harm or suicide risk.
3. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider?
- A. Heart rate of 55 beats per minute
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
- C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
- D. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A heart rate below 60 beats per minute is a contraindication for administering digoxin, as it can lead to bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common adverse effect associated with digoxin toxicity. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL are within normal limits and would not warrant withholding the medication or contacting the healthcare provider in this context. Therefore, a heart rate of 55 beats per minute would prompt the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.
4. A post-op nurse has an indwelling catheter in place for gravity drainage. The nurse notes that the client's urine bag has been empty for 2 hours. The first action the nurse should take is to:
- A. Check to see if the tubing is kinked.
- B. Increase the IV fluid rate.
- C. Check the catheter insertion site.
- D. Contact the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when the urine bag has not filled for 2 hours is to check if the tubing is kinked. Kinks in the tubing can obstruct the flow of urine from the catheter, leading to decreased drainage. Increasing the IV fluid rate is not the appropriate initial action in this situation as the primary concern is with the catheter drainage. Checking the catheter insertion site would be secondary to ensuring proper drainage. Contacting the healthcare provider is not necessary as the issue can often be resolved by checking for simple tubing obstructions first.
5. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test. Which site is most appropriate for this injection?
- A. Deltoid muscle
- B. Vastus lateralis muscle
- C. Abdomen
- D. Inner forearm
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The inner forearm is the most appropriate site for administering a tuberculin skin test. This test requires an intradermal injection, which is administered just below the surface of the skin. The inner forearm provides a flat, easily accessible surface for this type of injection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the tuberculin skin test should not be administered into a muscle (deltoid muscle or vastus lateralis muscle) or into the abdomen. The test requires precise placement within the dermal layer of the skin on the inner forearm to accurately assess for a reaction.
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