a client diagnosis with multiple sclerosis self administer beta 1 interferon subcutaneously
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis self-administers beta-1 interferon subcutaneously

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to continue taking the medication is crucial in the management of multiple sclerosis. Beta-1 interferon is a disease-modifying drug used to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses in multiple sclerosis. Discontinuing the medication without medical advice can lead to disease exacerbation. It is essential for the client to maintain regular dosing to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and disease control.

2. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed fluvoxamine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Fluvoxamine is known to cause drowsiness as a potential side effect. Patients should be advised to avoid activities like driving that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are potential side effects of other medications used for anxiety disorders but are not typically associated with fluvoxamine.

4. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 prescribed alogliptin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Alogliptin is associated with an increased risk of pancreatitis. Therefore, clients should be instructed to report any signs of pancreatitis, such as severe abdominal pain, to their healthcare provider promptly. This is essential for early detection and management of this serious adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect associated with alogliptin.

5. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.

Similar Questions

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A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?
A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?
A client with multiple sclerosis starts a new prescription, baclofen, to control muscle spasticity. Three days later, the client calls the clinic nurse and reports feeling fatigued and dizzy. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A 6-month-old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure. Which observation by the practical nurse (PN) warrants immediate intervention for signs of digoxin toxicity?

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