Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis self-administers beta-1 interferon subcutaneously

• A. Explain to the client that the medication dose may need to be increased
• B. Instruct the client to withhold the drug until the next exacerbation
• C. Advise the client to consult the healthcare provider as soon as possible
• D. Encourage the client to continue taking the medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to continue taking the medication is crucial in the management of multiple sclerosis. Beta-1 interferon is a disease-modifying drug used to reduce the frequency and severity of relapses in multiple sclerosis. Discontinuing the medication without medical advice can lead to disease exacerbation. It is essential for the client to maintain regular dosing to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and disease control.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed carvedilol, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, a potential side effect of this medication. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can slow down the heart rate, so monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any adverse effects on the client's cardiovascular system. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely to occur with carvedilol since it primarily works to reduce heart rate. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperglycemia (Choice D) are not common side effects associated with carvedilol.

3. A client with a history of angina is prescribed amlodipine. The practical nurse (PN) should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, commonly causes peripheral edema as an adverse effect. This is due to its vasodilation effects on blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to assess the client's response to amlodipine and ensure timely intervention if needed.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate, the nurse should monitor for constipation as a potential side effect. Ferric citrate can lead to constipation due to its effects on the gastrointestinal system, causing a decrease in bowel movements. It is essential for the nurse to assess and manage constipation promptly to prevent complications and ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Monitoring bowel movements, providing adequate hydration, and recommending dietary interventions can help alleviate constipation in clients taking ferric citrate. Diarrhea, nausea, and hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with the use of ferric citrate in clients with chronic kidney disease.

5. A client is admitted to a long-term care facility, and the nurse and a new employee are conducting medication reconciliation. The nurse notes that oxybutynin has been prescribed. The nurse realizes the new employee understands the drug's effect if the new employee explains that this medication is prescribed to treat which condition?

• A. Pain
• B. Depression
• C. Overactive bladder
• D. Chronic anxiety

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Overactive bladder. Oxybutynin is prescribed to treat overactive bladder by reducing muscle spasms of the bladder. It is classified as an anticholinergic medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxycodone is an opioid used for pain management. Bupropion is an antidepressant used to treat depression. Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to manage anxiety disorders.

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