Nursing Elites

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed clonidine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Clonidine, a medication used to treat hypertension, can cause a lowering of blood pressure leading to hypotension as a potential side effect. Monitoring for hypotension is essential to prevent complications such as dizziness, fainting, or falls. Option B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as clonidine typically causes bradycardia or a decreased heart rate. Option C, Dizziness, can occur due to hypotension caused by clonidine. Option D, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect associated with clonidine use.

2. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take this medication with food to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
• C. Avoid sunlight while taking this medication.
• D. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed methotrexate is to avoid sunlight while taking this medication. Methotrexate can increase sensitivity to sunlight, leading to skin reactions. It is essential for clients to limit sun exposure and use protective measures like sunscreen and clothing coverage to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding alcohol, taking with food, and reporting signs of infection are not specific instructions related to methotrexate therapy.

3. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?

• A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
• B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
• C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
• D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.

4. A client with pulmonary tuberculosis has been taking rifampin for 3 weeks. The client reports orange urine. What should be the nurse's next action?

• A. Notify the client's health care provider.
• B. Inform the client that this is not harmful.
• C. Assess the client for other signs of nephrotoxicity.
• D. Monitor the client's most recent creatinine level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client reports orange urine after taking rifampin is to inform the client that this change is not harmful. Rifampin is known to cause orange discoloration of urine, which is a harmless side effect. There is no need to notify the health care provider as this is an expected outcome. Monitoring creatinine levels or assessing for nephrotoxicity is unnecessary in this situation, as rifampin does not typically cause kidney damage.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD prescribed omeprazole is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. Omeprazole works best when taken on an empty stomach, approximately 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. This timing maximizes its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and helps manage symptoms of GERD more efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals may reduce its efficacy as it needs an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole can be taken with or without food, but it should not be taken with antacids as they can affect its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking omeprazole at bedtime is less effective compared to taking it before breakfast due to the circadian rhythm of gastric acid secretion.

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