Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in the urine or stool, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or nosebleeds, to ensure early detection and intervention.

2. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Phenobarbital
• D. Carbamazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

3. When planning to administer the antiulcer GI agent sucralfate, what instruction should the nurse provide regarding administration?

• A. Administer sucralfate once a day
• B. Assess for secondary candida infection
• C. Monitor electrolyte imbalance
• D. Give sucralfate on an empty stomach

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sucralfate is most effective when taken on an empty stomach. This allows the medication to form a protective layer over the ulcer, promoting healing and symptom relief. Administering sucralfate with or after meals may reduce its efficacy as it may bind to food instead of coating the ulcer site.

4. A client is prescribed ondansetron for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Constipation
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Constipation. Ondansetron is known to cause constipation as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for constipation while on this medication to address any issues promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headache, diarrhea, and increased appetite are not common adverse effects associated with ondansetron.

5. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Bone marrow suppression
• B. Increased risk of infection
• C. Liver toxicity
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone marrow suppression. Methotrexate, commonly used in rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, reducing the production of blood cells and increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia is crucial to detect bone marrow suppression early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while methotrexate can increase the risk of infection, liver toxicity, and kidney issues, the primary concern and most significant adverse effect to monitor for is bone marrow suppression due to its impact on blood cell production.

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