Nursing Elites

1. When teaching adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a group of newly licensed nurses, what should the charge nurse instruct as the initial response in CPR?

• A. Confirm unresponsiveness
• B. Check for a pulse
• C. Begin chest compressions
• D. Call for emergency help

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response in CPR is to confirm unresponsiveness. This step is crucial to ensure that the person actually needs CPR before proceeding with further actions. Checking for unresponsiveness is essential to determine if the individual is in need of immediate assistance. Checking for a pulse or beginning chest compressions without confirming unresponsiveness could waste valuable time and potentially harm the individual. Calling for emergency help is important, but it should follow the confirmation of unresponsiveness to ensure timely activation of emergency services.

2. When should discharge planning be initiated for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure?

• A. During the admission process.
• B. After the client stabilizes.
• C. Only after the client requests it.
• D. At the time of discharge.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning should begin during the admission process for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Initiating discharge planning early ensures timely and effective care transitions, which are crucial for managing the client's condition and preventing readmissions. Waiting until after the client stabilizes (choice B) could lead to delays in arranging necessary follow-up care and support services. Similarly, waiting for the client to request discharge planning (choice C) may result in missed opportunities for comprehensive care coordination. Planning at the time of discharge (choice D) is too late, as early intervention is key to promoting the client's well-being and recovery in the long term.

3. A client is being treated for paranoid schizophrenia. When the client became loud and boisterous, the nurse immediately placed him in seclusion as a precautionary measure. The client willingly complied. The nurse's action

• A. May result in charges of unlawful seclusion and restraint
• B. Leaves the nurse vulnerable to charges of assault and battery
• C. Was appropriate given the client's history of violence
• D. Was necessary to maintain the therapeutic milieu of the unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Seclusion should only be used when necessary and with proper documentation; otherwise, it may be considered unlawful. Placing a client in seclusion without a clear indication or proper documentation could lead to legal ramifications, making choice A the correct answer. Choice B is incorrect because assault and battery do not apply in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as there is no mention of the client posing an imminent threat due to a history of violence. Choice D is incorrect as seclusion should not be used solely to maintain the therapeutic milieu but rather for the safety of the client and others.

4. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

• A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
• B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
• C. Morphine 2 mg IV
• D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

5. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.

Similar Questions