Nursing Elites

1. A middle-aged adult in a clinical setting mentions being at average risk for colon cancer and asks about routine screening. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Performing a blood sample for a screening test.
• B. Scheduling a colonoscopy starting at age 60.
• C. Undergoing a fecal occult blood test annually.
• D. Having a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Colorectal cancer screening for individuals at average risk typically begins at age 50. One of the recommended options for routine screening is a fecal occult blood test done annually. Choice A is incorrect as blood samples are not used for routine colorectal cancer screening. Choice B is incorrect because colonoscopies usually start at age 50, not 60. Choice D is incorrect as sigmoidoscopies are recommended every 5 years, not every 10 years, for individuals at average risk for colon cancer.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
• B. Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
• C. Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substance cabinet
• D. Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In medication wastage situations involving controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse observe and verify the disposal process. This practice ensures accountability and prevents any mishandling or diversion of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because notifying the pharmacy is not the immediate action required in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as locking the remaining medication in the controlled substance cabinet without proper witnessing does not ensure accountability. Choice D is incorrect as disposing of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container does not address the need for a witness to verify the wastage of the controlled substance.

3. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

• A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
• B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
• C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
• D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which assessment finding should the healthcare provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Swelling and redness in the affected leg
• B. Pain in the affected leg
• C. Warmth and tenderness in the affected leg
• D. A positive Homans' sign

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Homans' sign is a classic sign associated with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and indicates the presence of a blood clot. This finding is crucial to report to the healthcare provider promptly for further evaluation and treatment. Swelling, redness, pain, warmth, and tenderness in the affected leg are common signs of DVT, but a positive Homans' sign specifically points towards a potential blood clot, making it the priority finding to be reported. Reporting other symptoms may also be important, but a positive Homans' sign is more specific to DVT and requires immediate attention.

5. A dying client is coping with feelings regarding impending death. The nurse bases care on the theory of death and dying by Kübler-Ross. During which stage of grieving should the LPN/LVN primarily use nonverbal interventions?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nonverbal interventions are primarily used during the acceptance stage according to Kübler-Ross's theory of death and dying. During the acceptance stage, the individual is more likely to be reflective and less communicative, making nonverbal interventions more effective. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because anger, denial, and bargaining are stages that precede the acceptance stage in Kübler-Ross's model, where verbal communication and processing emotions play a more significant role.

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