Nursing Elites

1. A middle-aged adult in a clinical setting mentions being at average risk for colon cancer and asks about routine screening. What should the nurse recommend?

• A. Performing a blood sample for a screening test.
• B. Scheduling a colonoscopy starting at age 60.
• C. Undergoing a fecal occult blood test annually.
• D. Having a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Colorectal cancer screening for individuals at average risk typically begins at age 50. One of the recommended options for routine screening is a fecal occult blood test done annually. Choice A is incorrect as blood samples are not used for routine colorectal cancer screening. Choice B is incorrect because colonoscopies usually start at age 50, not 60. Choice D is incorrect as sigmoidoscopies are recommended every 5 years, not every 10 years, for individuals at average risk for colon cancer.

2. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has influenza. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?

• A. Airborne
• B. Droplet
• C. Contact
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Droplet precautions should be initiated for clients with infections that spread via droplet nuclei larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as influenza, rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and streptococcal pharyngitis. In the case of influenza, the virus is primarily spread through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that remain infectious over long distances, typically smaller than 5 microns, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact, and protective environment precautions are for immunocompromised individuals to protect them from environmental pathogens.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing a plan of care for a client who was admitted with dehydration as a result of prolonged watery diarrhea. Which prescription should the healthcare professional question?

• A. Oral psyllium (Metamucil)
• B. Oral potassium supplement
• C. Parenteral half normal saline
• D. Parenteral albumin (Albuminar)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Parenteral albumin (Albuminar). Parenteral albumin is not typically indicated for dehydration resulting from diarrhea. In this case, fluid replacement therapy with intravenous fluids such as parenteral half normal saline would be more appropriate. Oral psyllium and oral potassium supplement are not the primary interventions for managing dehydration due to watery diarrhea. Oral psyllium is a fiber supplement used for constipation rather than diarrhea. Oral potassium supplements may be necessary if potassium levels are low due to dehydration, but the priority is fluid replacement. Therefore, choices A and B are less relevant in this scenario.

4. During an admission assessment, a nurse is documenting a client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Counsel the client on medication adherence.
• B. Assess the client for medication reactions.
• C. Compile a list of the client's current medications.
• D. Evaluate the client's understanding of medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an admission assessment, compiling a list of the client's current medications is crucial for accurate documentation and planning. This information helps prevent medication errors, identify potential interactions, and ensure continuity of care. While counseling the client on medication adherence (Choice A) is important, it is not the primary action when documenting medications. Assessing the client for medication reactions (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring side effects but not the immediate focus during documentation. Evaluating the client's understanding of medications (Choice D) is essential for education but does not address the immediate need for compiling a list of current medications.

5. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

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