HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 3-month-old infant immediately postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus. The healthcare provider needs to
- A. Assess for abdominal distention
- B. Maintain the infant in an upright position
- C. Begin feeding formula when the infant is alert
- D. Pump the shunt to assess for proper function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing for abdominal distention is crucial in this situation as it can indicate a complication with the shunt or fluid accumulation. Abdominal distention may suggest an issue with the shunt placement, such as obstruction or overdrainage, which requires immediate intervention. Maintaining the infant in an upright position (Choice B) is not the priority immediately postoperatively following a ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. Beginning formula feedings when the infant is alert (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority over assessing for abdominal distention. Pumping the shunt to assess for proper function (Choice D) is not a recommended nursing intervention postoperatively and should be done by a qualified healthcare provider.
2. Upon admission to the hospital, a client presents with decreased circulation in the left leg. What is the most important initial nursing action during the assessment?
- A. Assess the client's mobility
- B. Evaluate the pedal pulses
- C. Monitor skin temperature
- D. Check for swelling
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is admitted with decreased circulation in the left leg, the most critical initial nursing action is to evaluate the pedal pulses. Pedal pulses provide essential information about the circulation status in the affected leg. Assessing the client's mobility (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as evaluating pedal pulses in this scenario. Monitoring skin temperature (Choice C) and checking for swelling (Choice D) are also relevant, but they are secondary to evaluating pedal pulses since the latter directly assesses the circulation in the affected limb.
3. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing information for a change-of-shift report. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional include in the report?
- A. Input and output measurements for the shift
- B. Blood pressure readings from the previous day
- C. Bone scan scheduled for today
- D. Medication regimen from the medication administration record
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a change-of-shift report, healthcare professionals should include the medication regimen from the medication administration record. This information ensures continuity of care and helps incoming staff understand the patient's medication needs and schedule. While input and output measurements, blood pressure readings, and scheduled procedures like a bone scan are important aspects of patient care, they may not be immediately relevant for the incoming shift. Focusing on medication details helps prevent errors and ensures the patient receives the correct medications at the right times.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of hypertension. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
- B. Irregular heart rate
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Headache
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath in a client with a history of hypertension is a critical assessment finding as it may indicate heart failure, pulmonary edema, or other severe complications. The development of shortness of breath suggests that the client's condition may be rapidly deteriorating and requires immediate medical attention. Elevated blood pressure (150/90 mmHg) is concerning but not as acute as the potential complications associated with shortness of breath. An irregular heart rate and headache can also be symptoms of hypertension, but in this scenario, shortness of breath poses a higher risk of severe cardiovascular or respiratory issues.
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