HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 3-month-old infant immediately postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt for hydrocephalus. The healthcare provider needs to
- A. Assess for abdominal distention
- B. Maintain the infant in an upright position
- C. Begin feeding formula when the infant is alert
- D. Pump the shunt to assess for proper function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing for abdominal distention is crucial in this situation as it can indicate a complication with the shunt or fluid accumulation. Abdominal distention may suggest an issue with the shunt placement, such as obstruction or overdrainage, which requires immediate intervention. Maintaining the infant in an upright position (Choice B) is not the priority immediately postoperatively following a ventriculoperitoneal shunt placement. Beginning formula feedings when the infant is alert (Choice C) may be appropriate but is not the priority over assessing for abdominal distention. Pumping the shunt to assess for proper function (Choice D) is not a recommended nursing intervention postoperatively and should be done by a qualified healthcare provider.
2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Mild nausea
- B. Hair loss
- C. Increased fatigue
- D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.
3. A client is prescribed a buccal medication. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to take this medication?
- A. “I will first dissolve the tablet in water.”
- B. “I will insert the tablet between my cheek and teeth.”
- C. “I will place the tablet under my tongue.”
- D. “I will chew the tablet.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct way to take buccal medications is to insert the tablet between the cheek and gums where it will dissolve slowly. Option A is incorrect because buccal medications are not meant to be dissolved in water. Option C is incorrect as sublingual medications are placed under the tongue. Option D is incorrect because chewing a buccal tablet is not the correct administration method.
4. The LPN is caring for a client who has been placed in restraints. What is the most important action for the nurse to take?
- A. Ensure that the client’s circulation is checked every hour.
- B. Document the reason for the restraints every 4 hours.
- C. Provide range-of-motion exercises every 2 hours.
- D. Release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse to take when caring for a client in restraints is to release the restraints every 2 hours for repositioning. This practice helps prevent complications such as pressure ulcers and impaired circulation by ensuring adequate blood flow and preventing skin breakdown. Checking the client's circulation every hour (Choice A) is important, but releasing the restraints for repositioning takes precedence to prevent serious complications. While documenting the reason for restraints (Choice B) is essential for legal and documentation purposes, it is not as critical as providing necessary care to the client's physical well-being. Providing range-of-motion exercises (Choice C) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not address the immediate risks associated with prolonged restraint use.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.
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