HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture removal kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
- B. Remove sutures using sterile technique.
- C. Inspect the wound for signs of infection.
- D. Document the removal of sutures.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After applying sterile gloves, the nurse should proceed to remove the sutures using sterile technique. This step ensures the safe and effective removal of sutures without introducing infection. Choice A, cleaning sutures along the incision site, would not be the next step as the primary focus is on suture removal. Inspecting the wound for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but typically follows suture removal. Documenting the removal of sutures (Choice D) is essential but usually occurs after the procedure is completed.
2. At 0100 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Stay with the client and offer assistance with relaxation techniques
- B. Assess the client's pain level and administer pain medication if needed
- C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
- D. Encourage the client to engage in a quiet, non-stimulating activity until feeling sleepy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: At 0100 on the client's second postoperative night, the nurse should address the client's inability to sleep. Providing a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic is appropriate in this situation to help the client rest. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the room and closing the door does not directly address the client's sleep concern. Choice B is not the priority at this moment since the client's main issue is insomnia, not pain. Choice D, while encouraging a non-stimulating activity, does not provide immediate relief for the client's sleeplessness as a sedative-hypnotic would.
3. A healthcare professional is instructing an AP about caring for a client who has a low platelet count. Which of the following instructions is the priority for measuring vital signs for this client?
- A. Avoid measuring the client’s temperature rectally.
- B. Count the client’s radial pulse for 30 seconds and multiply it by 2.
- C. Count the client’s respirations discreetly.
- D. Allow the client to rest for 5 minutes before measuring their BP.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid measuring the client’s temperature rectally. Rectal temperatures can cause bleeding in clients with low platelet counts. It is crucial to avoid invasive methods that could increase the risk of bleeding or discomfort. Choice B, counting the radial pulse, is not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client with low platelet count. Choice C, counting respirations discreetly, is important for accuracy but is not the priority when considering the risk of bleeding. Choice D, letting the client rest before measuring blood pressure, is beneficial but is not the priority in preventing potential harm due to low platelet counts.
4. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating a client who has been on bed rest for the past month. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the client has developed thrombophlebitis?
- A. bladder distention
- B. decreased blood pressure
- C. calf swelling
- D. diminished bowel sounds
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Calf swelling, redness, and tenderness are classic signs of thrombophlebitis. The swelling occurs due to the formation of a blood clot in the deep veins of the calf, leading to inflammation and potential obstruction of blood flow. Bladder distention (Choice A) is more indicative of urinary retention, decreased blood pressure (Choice B) can be seen in conditions like shock, and diminished bowel sounds (Choice D) may suggest gastrointestinal issues, none of which are directly related to thrombophlebitis.
5. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?
- A. Providing cholesterol screening
- B. Teaching about a healthy diet
- C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
- D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.
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