HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. A 27-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. She is demanding and active. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?
- A. Schedule noncompetitive activities that can be carried out alone.
- B. Monitor her decision-making process.
- C. Encourage her to identify feelings of anger.
- D. Provide a structured environment with little stimuli.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients in the manic phase of bipolar disorder require a structured environment with decreased stimuli to help manage their symptoms. Providing a structured environment with little stimuli (D) can help reduce the risk of escalating behaviors. Scheduling noncompetitive activities that can be carried out alone (A) is more appropriate than group activities as excessive stimuli should be avoided. Monitoring decision-making processes (B) is important due to impulsivity in manic phases. Encouraging the client to identify feelings of anger (C) is not the priority in managing manic symptoms, as it is more often associated with depression than bipolar disorder.
2. A 52-year-old male client in the intensive care unit who has been oriented suddenly becomes disoriented and fearful. Assessment of vital signs and other physical parameters reveal no significant change, and the nurse formulates the diagnosis, 'Confusion related to ICU psychosis.' Which intervention would be best to implement?
- A. Move all machines away from the client's immediate area.
- B. Attempt to allay the client's fears by explaining the etiology of his condition.
- C. Cluster care so that brief periods of rest can be scheduled during the day.
- D. Extend visitation times for family and friends.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In critical care environments, stressors can lead to isolation and confusion. Providing the client with scheduled rest periods (C) can help alleviate these symptoms. Moving all machines away (A) is impractical as they are often essential. Explaining the condition (B) may not be effective during acute confusion. Extending visitation times (D) can be overwhelming for the client in the ICU.
3. A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Images indicate the presence of tumors and scars.
- B. The scan clearly outlines structures of the brain.
- C. Results show activity in various portions of the brain.
- D. PET shows biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. PET scans are primarily used to detect and observe the metabolic activity in various parts of the brain. This helps in diagnosing conditions related to brain function, such as tumors, brain disorders, and overall brain activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because PET scans focus on metabolic activity and functions in the brain rather than solely indicating the presence of tumors, outlining brain structures, or showing biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.
4. The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?
- A. Very high temperature
- B. Muscular rigidity
- C. Tremors
- D. Altered consciousness
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.
5. In the described scenario, a manic client threatens a nurse with physical violence after being told they cannot have a stripper perform. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Orient the client to time, person, and place
- B. Tell the client that the behavior is inappropriate
- C. Escort the manic client to her room, with assistance
- D. Tell the client that smoking privileges are revoked for 24 hours
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, where the manic client becomes verbally abusive and threatens physical violence, the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to escort the client to her room with assistance. This action helps ensure the safety of both the client and the nurse, while also providing a controlled environment that can help de-escalate the situation. Choices A and B do not address the immediate safety concerns presented by the client's behavior. Choice D, revoking smoking privileges, is not directly related to the client's current behavior and does not address the threat of violence.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access