HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health 2023
1. A female victim of sexual assault is being seen in the crisis center. The client states that she still feels 'as though the rape just happened yesterday,' even though it has been a few months since the incident. The appropriate nursing response is which of the following?
- A. You need to try to be realistic. The rape did not just occur.
- B. It will take some time to get over these feelings about your rape.
- C. Tell me more about the incident that causes you to feel like the rape just occurred.
- D. What do you think you can do to alleviate some of your fears about being raped again?
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to talk about the event that makes them feel as though the rape just occurred. This approach can help the client process their feelings and experiences, which is crucial in dealing with trauma. Choice A is dismissive and negates the client's feelings, which can be harmful. Choice B, although acknowledging the time needed to heal, does not actively address the client's current feelings. Choice D shifts the focus to future fears rather than addressing the client's current emotional state.
2. A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''These feelings are normal and will pass with time.''
- B. ''Increased energy can sometimes lead to increased risk for self-harm.''
- C. ''The medication needs more time to be effective.''
- D. ''Let's talk about the things that make you feel this way.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.
3. The nurse is taking a history for a female client who is requesting a routine female exam. Which assessment finding requires follow-up?
- A. Menstruation onset at age 9.
- B. Contraceptive method includes condoms only.
- C. Menstrual cycle occurs every 35 days.
- D. 'Black-out' after one drink last night on a date.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Experiencing a 'black-out' after consuming only one drink is highly unusual and may indicate the client was drugged, necessitating immediate follow-up. Menstruation onset at age 9 and a menstrual cycle occurring every 35 days, although on the outer ranges of 'average,' are within acceptable norms. Relying solely on condoms as a contraceptive method increases the risk of conception.
4. The nurse observes a client who is admitted to the mental health unit and identifies that the client is talking continuously, using words that rhyme but that have no context or relationship with one topic to the next in the conversation. This client's behavior and thought processes are consistent with which syndrome?
- A. Dementia
- B. Depression
- C. Schizophrenia
- D. Chronic brain syndrome
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is demonstrating symptoms of schizophrenia, such as disorganized speech that may include word salad (a type of communication that mixes real and imaginary words in no logical order), incoherent speech, and clanging (rhyming). Dementia (Choice A) is characterized by memory loss and cognitive decline, not by disorganized speech. Depression (Choice B) typically presents with persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest, not disorganized speech. Chronic brain syndrome (Choice D) is a vague term and does not specifically describe the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.
5. A female client with bulimia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Allow the client to eat meals alone to reduce stress.
- B. Observe the client for 30 minutes after meals.
- C. Provide the client with a high-calorie diet.
- D. Encourage the client to weigh herself daily.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with bulimia nervosa is to observe the client for 30 minutes after meals. This helps prevent purging behaviors, such as vomiting or using laxatives, which are common in bulimia nervosa. Choice A is incorrect because eating meals alone may enable the client to engage in purging behaviors without being observed. Choice C is incorrect as a high-calorie diet may exacerbate the client's concerns about weight gain. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging daily weigh-ins can reinforce obsessive thoughts about weight and body image.
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