a client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol haldol the lpnlvn observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious what s
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HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health Practice Exam

1. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.

2. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

3. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness to instructions and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy would make it challenging to implement such therapy effectively. In such cases, gastric lavage may be necessary to remove the ingested substance. Choices A and B are important considerations in treatment planning but do not directly indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as medical treatments should never be used as punitive measures but rather for therapeutic purposes.

4. The LPN/LVN calls security and has physical restraints applied when a client who was admitted voluntarily becomes both physically and verbally abusive while demanding to be discharged from the hospital. Which represents the possible legal ramifications for the nurse associated with these interventions? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the possible legal ramifications for the nurse could include battery, assault, and false imprisonment. Battery refers to the intentional harmful or offensive touching of another person without consent, which could be perceived when applying physical restraints. Assault is the apprehension of harmful or offensive contact, creating fear in the individual, which can result from the verbal threats and physical actions of the patient. False imprisonment occurs when a person is unlawfully restrained, which may apply if the patient was involuntarily restrained. Slander, on the other hand, is the oral defamation of character, which does not align with the actions described in the scenario, making it the choice that does not apply.

5. Select the nursing interventions for a hospitalized client with mania who is exhibiting manipulative behavior. Select one intervention that does not apply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ensuring that the client knows they are not in charge of the nursing unit is not a helpful nursing intervention for managing manipulative behavior in a client with mania. Communicating expected behaviors, assisting with limit-setting, and following through on consequences in a non-punitive manner are more appropriate interventions to address manipulative behavior.

Similar Questions

A RN is preparing the physical environment to interview a new client for admission to the mental health unit. Which environmental setting facilitates the best outcome of the interview?
A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly checks the locks on the doors. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
A client with a leg amputation is upset about his appearance. The LPN/LVN intends to address which most closely associated psychosocial problem?
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement during the first 24 hours of hospitalization?
A client with schizophrenia who has been stabilized on medication is being discharged from the hospital. What discharge teaching is most important for the LPN/LVN to reinforce?

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