HESI LPN
HESI Maternal Newborn
1. Which drug was marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women and caused birth defects such as missing or stunted limbs in infants?
- A. Progestin
- B. Estrogen
- C. Thalidomide
- D. Oxytocin
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thalidomide is the correct answer. Thalidomide was a drug marketed in the 1960s to pregnant women as a sedative and anti-nausea medication but tragically led to severe birth defects, including limb deformities, when taken during pregnancy. Progestin (Choice A) and Estrogen (Choice B) are hormones that are not associated with causing birth defects like Thalidomide. Oxytocin (Choice D) is a hormone that plays a role in labor and breastfeeding and is not known to cause birth defects like Thalidomide.
2. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
- B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
- C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
- D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.
3. As women reach the end of their childbearing years, does ovulation become more regular?
- A. TRUE
- B. FALSE
- C. Rarely
- D. Always
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. As women age and reach the end of their childbearing years, ovulation becomes less regular due to hormonal changes associated with menopause. This can result in irregular ovulation patterns or even the cessation of ovulation entirely. Choice A is incorrect because ovulation does not become more regular with age. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the changes in ovulation patterns that occur as women approach the end of their childbearing years.
4. A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
- A. The client expels the placenta
- B. The client experiences gradual dilation of the cervix
- C. The client begins having regular contractions
- D. The client delivers the newborn
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.
5. A client comes to the clinic for her first prenatal visit and reports that July 10 was the first day of her last menstrual period. Using Nagele’s Rule, the nurse calculates the estimated date of birth for the client to be _________.
- A. 4/17.
- B. 4/10.
- C. 5/10.
- D. 5/17.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nagele's Rule is a common method used to estimate the due date. To calculate it, subtract 3 months and add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period. In this case, if the last menstrual period started on July 10, subtracting 3 months (April) and adding 7 days gives an estimated due date of April 17. This is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not follow the Nagele's Rule calculation method.
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