Nursing Elites

1. A nurse on a labor and delivery unit is providing teaching to a client who plans to use hypnosis to control labor pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. Focusing on controlling body functions
• B. Synchronized breathing is often helpful during hypnosis
• C. Hypnosis can be beneficial if practiced during the prenatal period
• D. Hypnosis is ineffective for controlling pain associated with labor

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypnosis can be an effective method of pain control during labor, especially if practiced during the prenatal period. Choice A is not specific to hypnosis and may not be directly related. Choice B is not essential for hypnosis and may not always be required. Choice D is incorrect as hypnosis has been shown to be beneficial for managing labor pain when done correctly, making it an inappropriate option to include in the teaching.

2. A 38-week primigravida is admitted to labor and delivery after a non-reactive result on a non-stress test (NST). The nurse begins a contraction stress test (CST) with an oxytocin infusion. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. A pattern of fetal late decelerations.
• B. Fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement.
• C. Absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes.
• D. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A pattern of fetal late decelerations. Late decelerations during a contraction stress test are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, which can pose a risk to fetal well-being. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt intervention. Choice B, fetal heart rate accelerations with fetal movement, is a reassuring sign of fetal well-being and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absence of uterine contractions within 20 minutes, may require further assessment but is not as critical as late decelerations. Choice D, spontaneous rupture of membranes, is important but not the most immediate concern during a contraction stress test.

3. A multiparous client at 36 hours postpartum reports increased bleeding and cramping. On examination, the nurse finds the uterine fundus 2 centimeters above the umbilicus. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Increase the intravenous fluid to 150 ml/hr.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Encourage the client to void.
• D. Administer ibuprofen 800 milligrams by mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to void is the priority action in this scenario. A distended bladder can prevent the uterus from contracting properly, leading to increased bleeding and a high uterine fundus. By encouraging the client to void, the nurse can help the uterus contract effectively, reducing bleeding. Increasing intravenous fluids or administering ibuprofen would not address the immediate concern of a distended bladder affecting uterine contraction. While it may be necessary to involve the healthcare provider, addressing the bladder distention promptly is crucial to prevent further complications.

4. Most victims of _____ die of respiratory infections in their 20s.

• A. Tay-Sachs disease
• B. cystic fibrosis
• C. Turner syndrome
• D. Klinefelter syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Individuals with cystic fibrosis have a genetic disorder that causes mucus to be thick and sticky, leading to blockages in the lungs and digestive system. This mucus buildup makes them more susceptible to severe respiratory infections, which can ultimately result in premature death in their 20s. Tay-Sachs disease (Choice A) is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system, not typically causing respiratory infections. Turner syndrome (Choice C) and Klinefelter syndrome (Choice D) are chromosomal disorders that do not directly lead to the respiratory issues observed in cystic fibrosis.

5. When both of the alleles for a trait, such as hair color, are the same, the person is said to be _____ for that trait.

• A. monozygous
• B. dizygous
• C. homozygous
• D. hemizygous

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A person is homozygous for a trait when they have two identical alleles for that trait. In this case, both alleles are the same, indicating a homozygous genotype. Choice A, 'monozygous,' is incorrect as it refers to identical twins originating from a single fertilized egg. Choice B, 'dizygous,' is also incorrect as it refers to fraternal twins or individuals that develop from two separate fertilized eggs. Choice D, 'hemizygous,' is incorrect because it describes a genetic condition where only one allele is present in a diploid organism, typically related to genes on the sex chromosomes.

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