HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with schizophrenia who is prescribed clozapine (Clozaril). Which information should the nurse include?
- A. You need to come in for regular blood tests.
- B. This medication can cause weight loss.
- C. You can stop taking this medication once you feel better.
- D. Avoid foods high in tyramine while on this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You need to come in for regular blood tests.' Clozapine can cause agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, so regular blood tests are required to monitor the client's white blood cell count. Choice B is incorrect because clozapine is associated with weight gain, not weight loss. Choice C is incorrect because the client should never stop taking clozapine abruptly due to the risk of withdrawal symptoms and symptom relapse. Choice D is incorrect because avoiding foods high in tyramine is typically associated with MAOIs, not clozapine.
2. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
- C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
- D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.
3. A client with a history of bipolar disorder presents to the emergency department with symptoms of mania. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administer prescribed medication to manage symptoms.
- B. Provide a calm environment with minimal stimulation.
- C. Encourage the client to express feelings and emotions.
- D. Reinforce the need for consistent medication adherence.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering prescribed medication to manage symptoms is the priority intervention for a client with symptoms of mania. During a manic episode, the client may be at risk of harm to self or others due to impulsivity and poor judgment. Medication helps stabilize the client, reduce manic symptoms, and prevent further escalation. Providing a calm environment (choice B) is important but not the priority when the client's safety is at risk. Encouraging expression of feelings (choice C) and reinforcing medication adherence (choice D) are valuable aspects of care but addressing the acute symptoms of mania takes precedence to ensure the client's immediate safety and well-being.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with depression who is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). The client reports difficulty sleeping. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to take short naps during the day.
- B. Suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime.
- C. Recommend the client exercise immediately before bedtime.
- D. Advise the client to take a sleep aid nightly.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with difficulty sleeping due to depression and prescribed fluoxetine is to suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime. This intervention can promote relaxation and help establish a bedtime routine, potentially improving sleep quality. Encouraging short naps during the day (Choice A) may disrupt the client's nighttime sleep schedule. Recommending exercise immediately before bedtime (Choice C) can have a stimulating effect, making it harder for the client to fall asleep. Advising the client to take a sleep aid nightly (Choice D) should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider due to potential interactions with fluoxetine.
5. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?
- A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
- B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
- C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
- D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.
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