Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client’s current feelings of depression?

• A. Feelings of frustration.
• B. A sense of loss.
• C. Poor self-esteem.
• D. A lack of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's recent history of divorce, job loss, and breakup of a current relationship indicates a series of significant losses. These losses are likely the primary source of his feelings of depression, leading to a sense of loss. While feelings of frustration (choice A) and poor self-esteem (choice C) could be contributing factors, the immediate trigger for his current emotional state appears to be the series of losses. A lack of intimate relationships (choice D) may be a consequence of the client's depressive symptoms rather than the root cause in this scenario.

2. A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Offer to play a game of cards with the client.
• B. Report the behavior to the next shift.
• C. Document the behavior in the chart.
• D. Plan to talk with the client the next day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.

3. Which client statement suggests that the client is using a defense mechanism of projection to deal with anxiety related to admission to a psychiatric unit?

• A. At least I hit the wall instead of hitting the psychiatric aide.
• B. I am here because the police thought I was doing something wrong.
• C. I want to be here because I know it is the best psychiatric facility.
• D. Don’t believe everything my family tells you, I am not crazy.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client is projecting their own aggressive tendencies onto the psychiatric aide by suggesting hitting the wall instead of the aide. This statement reflects projection, a defense mechanism where one attributes their unacceptable feelings or impulses to others. Choice B reflects externalization rather than projection, Choice C reflects rationalization, and Choice D reflects denial.

4. When preparing to administer a domestic violence screening tool to a female client, which statement should the RN provide?

• A. If you are experiencing abuse from your partner, I am required to ask you these questions.
• B. It is a requirement by law for me to inquire if you are a victim of domestic violence.
• C. Your healthcare provider must be informed if you are facing any domestic abuse.
• D. All clients undergo screening for domestic abuse due to its prevalence in our society.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because screening all clients for domestic abuse as a routine part of care helps in early identification and support. Choice A is incorrect as it may imply that the questions are only asked if abuse is already suspected. Choice B is incorrect because it emphasizes the legal obligation rather than the importance of routine screening. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the healthcare provider's need rather than the benefit to the client of routine screening.

5. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Avoid acknowledging the behavior.
• B. Isolate the client from other clients.
• C. Administer a PRN sedative.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best intervention for a male client with schizophrenia displaying echolalia, which is disruptive to others, is for the nurse to escort the client to his room. Echolalia, the constant repetition of others' words, can be disruptive in a communal setting. By guiding the client to a private space like his room, the nurse helps manage the behavior without isolating or medicating the client unnecessarily. Avoiding acknowledging the behavior (Choice A) does not address the issue, isolating the client (Choice B) may exacerbate feelings of exclusion, and administering a PRN sedative (Choice C) should be reserved for situations where there is imminent risk or severe agitation, not for managing echolalia.

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