Nursing Elites

1. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit with a bandaged flesh wound after attempting to shoot himself. He was divorced one year ago, lost his job four months ago, and suffered a breakup of his current relationship last week. What is the most likely source of this client’s current feelings of depression?

• A. Feelings of frustration.
• B. A sense of loss.
• C. Poor self-esteem.
• D. A lack of intimate relationships.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's recent history of divorce, job loss, and breakup of a current relationship indicates a series of significant losses. These losses are likely the primary source of his feelings of depression, leading to a sense of loss. While feelings of frustration (choice A) and poor self-esteem (choice C) could be contributing factors, the immediate trigger for his current emotional state appears to be the series of losses. A lack of intimate relationships (choice D) may be a consequence of the client's depressive symptoms rather than the root cause in this scenario.

2. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

3. A client who has agoraphobia (a fear of crowds) is beginning desensitization with the therapist, and the RN is reinforcing the process. Which intervention has the highest priority for this client’s plan of care?

• A. Encourage substitution of positive thoughts for negative ones.
• B. Establish trust by providing a calm, safe environment.
• C. Progressively expose the client to larger crowds.
• D. Encourage deep breathing when anxiety escalates in a crowd.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Establishing trust and providing a calm, safe environment is crucial when working with clients with agoraphobia undergoing desensitization therapy. This approach helps build a foundation of safety and security, allowing the client to feel more comfortable and supported during the exposure process. Encouraging positive thoughts (choice A) is important, but ensuring a safe environment takes precedence. Progressively exposing the client to larger crowds (choice C) should be done gradually and in a controlled manner; rushing this process can be overwhelming and counterproductive. Encouraging deep breathing (choice D) is a helpful coping mechanism, but creating a safe and trusting environment is the initial priority to facilitate successful desensitization therapy.

4. An RN is providing education to the family of a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). The RN should instruct the family to report which symptom immediately?

• A. Sore throat
• B. Weight loss
• C. Constipation
• D. Lightheadedness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells. A sore throat can be an early sign of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of clozapine. The family should report this symptom immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight loss, constipation, and lightheadedness are not typically associated with the serious adverse effect of agranulocytosis related to clozapine therapy.

5. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed lithium carbonate. Which finding should the RN report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 16 mg/dL
• C. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• D. Urine output of 800 mL in 24 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Elevated BUN levels may indicate renal impairment, which is crucial to report for clients on lithium due to its potential kidney effects. Option A, a serum lithium level of 0.8 mEq/L, is within the therapeutic range for lithium and does not require immediate reporting. Option C, a serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L, is within the normal range and not directly related to lithium therapy. Option D, urine output of 800 mL in 24 hours, may indicate a need for further assessment but is not the most critical finding to report compared to potential renal impairment indicated by an elevated BUN level.

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