HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023
1. Physical examination of a 6-year-old reveals several bite marks in various locations on his body. X-ray examination reveals healed fractures of the ribs. The mother tells the nurse that her child is always having accidents. Which initial response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. I need to inform the healthcare provider about your child's tendency to be accident-prone.
- B. Tell me more specifically about your child's accidents.
- C. I must report these injuries to the authorities because they do not seem accidental.
- D. Boys this age always seem to require more supervision and can be quite accident-prone.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: (B) seeks more information in a non-threatening manner to gather additional details about the child's accidents. This response allows the nurse to explore the situation further without making assumptions. (A) fails to address the concerning findings and instead focuses on informing the healthcare provider. (C) jumps to conclusions without gathering more information, potentially causing unnecessary distress to the family. (D) dismisses the seriousness of the situation by attributing the injuries to common accidents for boys, missing the opportunity to delve deeper into the issue.
2. The parents of a 14-year-old boy bring their son to the hospital. He is lethargic but responsive. The mother states, 'I think he took some of my pain pills.' During the initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?
- A. If he has seemed depressed recently.
- B. If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.
- C. If he might have taken any other drugs.
- D. If he has a desire to quit taking drugs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a situation where a teenager is brought to the hospital after possibly ingesting pills, the most crucial information for the nurse to obtain from the parents is whether the teenager might have taken any other drugs (C). This knowledge is vital for guiding further treatment, such as administering antagonists, making it the top priority. While information about depression (A) and previous drug overdoses (B) is valuable for treatment planning, it is not as critical as knowing all substances taken. Asking about the teenager's desire to quit taking drugs (D) is not appropriate during the acute management of a drug overdose and does not take precedence over determining what other substances might have been ingested.
3. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:
- A. Prolixin is the most effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia.
- B. The client will be less withdrawn and unmotivated when the Prolixin takes effect.
- C. The client's Prolixin dose probably needs to be increased again.
- D. Lack of motivation is a common side effect of the Prolixin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.
4. An older homeless client visits the psychiatric clinic to obtain a prescription renewal for alprazolam (Xanax). During the health assessment, the client complains of chest pain. Which action should the RN take first?
- A. Refer the client to the cardiology unit.
- B. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
- C. Assess the client for substance abuse.
- D. Determine if Xanax was taken recently.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Determining if Xanax was taken recently is crucial as it helps assess whether the chest pain is related to medication use or another issue, guiding appropriate immediate care. This action can provide essential information to address the client's current complaint effectively. Referring the client to the cardiology unit (Choice A) may be premature without assessing the Xanax use first. While obtaining the client's blood pressure (Choice B) is important, it is not the priority when the client presents with chest pain and a history of taking Xanax. Assessing the client for substance abuse (Choice C) is also important but is secondary to first determining the potential link between Xanax and the chest pain.
5. A client with depression is started on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). What should the LPN/LVN include in the teaching plan?
- A. Take the medication with food to avoid nausea.
- B. You may start feeling better within 1 to 2 weeks.
- C. The medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective.
- D. You may experience side effects such as dry mouth or dizziness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Teaching the client that the medication may take 4 to 6 weeks to become fully effective is crucial as it helps set realistic expectations. While choice A is important to reduce nausea, it is not the most critical information to provide initially. Choice B is incorrect as improvement usually occurs after several weeks of treatment, not within 1 to 2 weeks. Choice D is also relevant, but informing about the full effectiveness of the medication is more important for long-term adherence.
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