Nursing Elites

1. In the described scenario, a manic client threatens a nurse with physical violence after being told they cannot have a stripper perform. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Orient the client to time, person, and place
• B. Tell the client that the behavior is inappropriate
• C. Escort the manic client to her room, with assistance
• D. Tell the client that smoking privileges are revoked for 24 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, where the manic client becomes verbally abusive and threatens physical violence, the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to escort the client to her room with assistance. This action helps ensure the safety of both the client and the nurse, while also providing a controlled environment that can help de-escalate the situation. Choices A and B do not address the immediate safety concerns presented by the client's behavior. Choice D, revoking smoking privileges, is not directly related to the client's current behavior and does not address the threat of violence.

2. A client's medication sheet contains a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). To ensure safe administration of the medication, a nurse would administer the dose:

• A. On an empty stomach
• B. At the same time each evening
• C. Evenly spaced around the clock
• D. As needed when the client complains of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'At the same time each evening.' Sertraline should be administered at the same time each evening to maintain steady drug levels and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because sertraline can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as sertraline does not need to be spaced around the clock. Choice D is incorrect as sertraline is a scheduled medication and should not be taken on an as-needed basis for complaints of depression.

3. A client with a history of bipolar disorder presents to the emergency department with symptoms of mania. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer prescribed medication to manage symptoms.
• B. Provide a calm environment with minimal stimulation.
• C. Encourage the client to express feelings and emotions.
• D. Reinforce the need for consistent medication adherence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering prescribed medication to manage symptoms is the priority intervention for a client with symptoms of mania. During a manic episode, the client may be at risk of harm to self or others due to impulsivity and poor judgment. Medication helps stabilize the client, reduce manic symptoms, and prevent further escalation. Providing a calm environment (choice B) is important but not the priority when the client's safety is at risk. Encouraging expression of feelings (choice C) and reinforcing medication adherence (choice D) are valuable aspects of care but addressing the acute symptoms of mania takes precedence to ensure the client's immediate safety and well-being.

4. The nurse observes a female client with schizophrenia watching the news on TV. She begins to laugh softly and says, 'Yes, my love, I'll do it.' When the nurse questions the client about her comment, she states, 'The news commentator is my lover, and he speaks to me each evening. Only I can understand what he says.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?

• A. What do you believe the news commentator said to you?
• B. Let's watch the news on a different television channel.
• C. Does the news commentator have plans to harm you or others?
• D. The news commentator is not talking to you.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response for the nurse is to ask the client, 'What do you believe the news commentator said to you?' This is important to determine the content of the auditory hallucination and understand the client's perception. Choice B is incorrect as changing the TV channel does not address the underlying issue. Choice C is incorrect as it introduces a paranoid idea that the news commentator may have harmful intentions, which is not supported by the scenario. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the client's belief without exploring or validating her experience.

5. The client is planning discharge for a male client with schizophrenia. The client insists that he is returning to his apartment, although the healthcare provider informed him that he will be moving to a boarding home. What is the most important nursing diagnosis for discharge planning?

• A. Ineffective denial related to situational anxiety.
• B. Ineffective coping related to inadequate support.
• C. Social isolation related to difficult interactions.
• D. Self-care deficit related to cognitive impairment.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best nursing diagnosis is (A) because the client is unable to acknowledge the move to a boarding home. While (B, C, and D) are potential nursing diagnoses, denial is the most critical as it is a defense mechanism preventing the client from addressing his feelings regarding the change in living arrangements.

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