Nursing Elites

1. A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. The client expels the placenta
• B. The client experiences gradual dilation of the cervix
• C. The client begins having regular contractions
• D. The client delivers the newborn

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.

2. Humans begin life as a single cell that divides repeatedly. This cell is known as a(n):

• A. zygote.
• B. gonadotrope.
• C. embryo.
• D. chromaffin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A zygote is the correct answer. It is the initial cell formed when a sperm cell fertilizes an egg cell, marking the beginning of human development. Choice B, gonadotrope, is incorrect as it refers to a type of hormone-secreting cell in the pituitary gland. Choice C, embryo, is incorrect as it is the stage of development after the zygote has implanted into the uterine wall and undergone initial cell divisions. Choice D, chromaffin, is incorrect as it refers to cells found in the adrenal medulla that produce and store catecholamines.

3. The nurse is providing care for a newborn who was delivered vaginally assisted by forceps. The nurse observes red marks on the head with swelling that does not cross the suture line. Which condition should the nurse document in the medical record?

• A. Caput succedaneum
• B. Hydrocephalus
• C. Cephalhematoma
• D. Microcephaly

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is Cephalhematoma. Cephalhematoma is a collection of blood between the skull bone and periosteum that does not cross the suture line. It often occurs due to birth trauma, such as forceps delivery, leading to localized swelling. Caput succedaneum (Choice A) is diffuse swelling of the scalp that may cross suture lines and is typically present at birth. Hydrocephalus (Choice B) is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid within the brain's ventricles. Microcephaly (Choice D) is a condition characterized by a smaller than average head size and may be present at birth or develop later in infancy.

4. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

• A. Group B strep culture
• B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
• C. Rubella titer
• D. Blood type and Rh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

5. Does a blastocyst gain mass only when it receives nourishment from outside?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Always

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A blastocyst does indeed require external nourishment from the mother's body to continue developing and gaining mass. Without this external nourishment, the blastocyst would not be able to grow and develop properly. Therefore, the statement that a blastocyst gains mass only when it receives nourishment from outside is true. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the dependency of a blastocyst on external nourishment for its development and growth.

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