Nursing Elites

1. A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. The client expels the placenta
• B. The client experiences gradual dilation of the cervix
• C. The client begins having regular contractions
• D. The client delivers the newborn

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.

2. A client who is 5 days postpartum is being taught about signs of effective breastfeeding. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Feeling a tugging sensation when the baby is sucking
• B. Expecting the baby to have two to three wet diapers in a 24-hour period
• C. The baby’s urine should appear dark and concentrated
• D. The breast should stay firm after the baby breastfeeds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Feeling a tugging sensation while the baby is sucking indicates an effective latch and milk transfer during breastfeeding. This sensation means that the baby is effectively drawing milk from the breast. Choice B is incorrect because infants should ideally have six to eight wet diapers in a 24-hour period to show adequate hydration. Choice C is incorrect as a dark and concentrated urine may indicate dehydration, which is not a sign of effective breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as the breast should soften after the baby breastfeeds, indicating that the baby has effectively emptied the breast of milk.

3. At 12 hours after the birth of a healthy infant, the mother complains of feeling constant vaginal pressure. The nurse determines the fundus is firm and at midline with moderate rubra lochia. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Check the suprapubic area for distention
• B. Inform the client to take a warm sitz bath
• C. Inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas
• D. Apply a fresh pad and check in 1 hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this situation, the mother's complaint of constant vaginal pressure along with a firm fundus and moderate rubra lochia indicates a potential perineal injury or hematoma. The correct action for the nurse to take is to inspect the client's perineal and rectal areas to assess for any signs of trauma or hematoma. Checking the suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) is not the priority here since the symptoms suggest a perineal issue. Advising a warm sitz bath (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue and could potentially worsen any existing trauma. Applying a fresh pad and checking in 1 hour (Choice D) does not address the need for immediate assessment of the perineal and rectal areas in response to the reported symptoms.

4. A newborn is being assessed by a nurse who was born post-term. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Nails extending over tips of fingers
• B. Large deposits of subcutaneous fat
• C. Pale, translucent skin
• D. Thin covering of fine hair on shoulders and back

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Post-term newborns often have longer nails that extend over the tips of their fingers due to the extended gestation period. This occurs because the baby continues to grow in utero past the typical 40 weeks of gestation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as large deposits of subcutaneous fat, pale translucent skin, and a thin covering of fine hair on shoulders and back are not typically associated with post-term newborns. Longer nails are a common finding in post-term newborns due to the prolonged time spent in the womb, allowing for more nail growth compared to infants born at term.

5. The healthcare provider is planning care for a client at 30 weeks gestation who is experiencing preterm labor. Which medication is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory distress syndrome?

• A. Ampicillin 1 gram IV push every 8 hours
• B. Betamethasone 12 mg deep IM
• C. Terbutaline 0.25 mg subcutaneously every 15 minutes for 3 doses
• D. Butorphanol tartrate 1 mg IV push every 2 hours as needed

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to stimulate fetal lung maturity and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin (Choice A) is an antibiotic and does not prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Terbutaline (Choice C) is a tocolytic used to inhibit contractions and does not directly prevent respiratory distress syndrome. Butorphanol tartrate (Choice D) is an opioid analgesic and does not have a role in preventing respiratory distress syndrome in preterm infants.

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