a nurse is caring for a client who is in the second stage of labor which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect
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1. A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.

2. Which FHR finding is the most concerning to the nurse providing care to a laboring client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, resulting in fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent, indicating compromised oxygen supply to the fetus. Accelerations with fetal movement (Choice A) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being. Early decelerations (Choice B) are typically benign, associated with head compression during contractions. An average FHR of 126 beats per minute (Choice C) falls within the normal range for fetal heart rate and is not concerning. Therefore, the most concerning FHR finding in a laboring client is late decelerations (Choice D).

3. Rico is a man who has enlarged breasts and suffers from mild mental retardation. He has a problem learning languages, and his body produces less of the male sex hormone testosterone than normal males. Rico is most likely suffering from:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rico's symptoms align with Klinefelter syndrome, which is characterized by an extra X chromosome in males (XXY). Enlarged breasts (gynecomastia), mild mental retardation, learning difficulties, and reduced testosterone production are common features of Klinefelter syndrome. Choice B, Tay-Sachs disease, is a genetic disorder that affects the nervous system and is not associated with the symptoms described. Choice C, Turner syndrome, occurs in females with a missing or partially missing X chromosome and does not fit Rico's profile. Choice D, Down syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 and typically does not present with the symptoms mentioned for Rico.

4. Jill bears the genetic code for Von Willebrand disease, but she has never developed the illness herself. Jill would be considered:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Jill is a carrier of the recessive gene for Von Willebrand disease. Being a carrier means that she has one copy of the gene but does not show symptoms of the disease. Carriers can pass on the gene to their offspring. Choice B is incorrect as being a carrier does not mean she is susceptible to developing the disease after adolescence. Choice C is incorrect as 'acceptor' is not a term used in genetics in this context. Choice D is incorrect as susceptibility to the disease is not related to late adulthood in carriers of a recessive gene.

5. A nurse is teaching about clomiphene citrate to a client who is experiencing infertility. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breast Tenderness.' Clomiphene citrate is known to cause breast tenderness as a common side effect due to its hormonal effects on the body. Tinnitus (choice A), which is a ringing in the ears, is not typically associated with clomiphene citrate. Urinary frequency (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of this medication. Chills (choice D) are also not commonly linked to clomiphene citrate use.

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