Nursing Elites

1. A client is in the second stage of labor. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. The client expels the placenta
• B. The client experiences gradual dilation of the cervix
• C. The client begins having regular contractions
• D. The client delivers the newborn

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During the second stage of labor, the cervix is fully dilated, and the client delivers the newborn. The expulsion of the placenta occurs during the third stage of labor, not the second stage. Regular contractions typically begin in the first stage of labor, not the second. Gradual dilation of the cervix occurs during the first stage of labor, specifically during the active phase.

2. Are sperm much larger than ova?

• A. TRUE
• B. FALSE
• C. Sometimes
• D. Always

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: FALSE. Ova, also known as eggs, are actually the largest cells in the human body, while sperm are significantly smaller. This size difference is due to the different functions of the two gametes. Sperm are specialized for motility to reach and fertilize the egg, while ova contain nutrients and cellular machinery needed for fertilization and early embryonic development. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because sperm are not larger than ova; they are much smaller in size.

3. A 16-year-old gravida 1 para 0 client has just been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of eclampsia. She's not presently convulsing. Which intervention should the nurse plan to include in this client's nursing care plan?

• A. Allow liberal family visitation
• B. Keep an airway at the bedside
• C. Assess temperature every hour
• D. Monitor blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping an airway at the bedside is crucial for a client with eclampsia, as there is a high risk of seizures that can obstruct the airway. Allowing liberal family visitation (choice A) may not be a priority at this time and can be overwhelming for the client. Assessing temperature every hour (choice C) is not directly related to managing eclampsia. Monitoring blood pressure, pulse, and respiration every 4 hours (choice D) is important but not as immediate as ensuring airway patency.

4. What is the process in which the double helix of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) duplicates?

• A. Amniocentesis
• B. Mitosis
• C. Meiosis
• D. Mutation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process of cell division in which a cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the DNA is replicated, and each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure to collect amniotic fluid for prenatal genetic testing and is not related to DNA duplication. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces gametes with half the genetic material of the parent cell, leading to genetic diversity. Mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variations but is not the process of DNA duplication.

5. A client is receiving an epidural block with an opioid analgesic. The nurse should monitor for which of the following findings as an adverse effect of the medication?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Polyuria
• C. Bilateral crackles
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bilateral crackles. Bilateral crackles indicate respiratory complications, which can occur as an adverse effect of an epidural block with opioid analgesics. Hypotension (Choice A) is a common side effect of epidural opioids but is not typically monitored via crackles. Polyuria (Choice B) is excessive urination and is not directly associated with epidural blocks. Hyperglycemia (Choice D) is high blood sugar levels and is not a typical adverse effect of epidural opioids.

Similar Questions