Nursing Elites

1. An individual’s phenotype reflects both genetic and environmental influences.

• A. phenotype
• B. chromosome
• C. allele
• D. genotype

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: phenotype. A phenotype is the observable characteristics of an individual, which result from the interaction of their genotype with the environment. This interaction between genetics and the environment determines how genes are expressed and how traits are manifested in an individual. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chromosomes, alleles, and genotypes are components of an individual's genetic makeup, but they do not directly reflect the observable traits influenced by both genetics and the environment.

2. The mother of a breastfeeding 24-hour old infant is very concerned about the techniques involved in breastfeeding. She calls the nurse with each feeding to seek reassurance that she is doing it right. She tells the nurse, "Now my daughter is not getting enough to eat." Which response would be best for the nurse to make?

• A. Feed your baby hourly until you feel confident that your child is receiving enough milk.
• B. Don't worry, soon your milk will come in, and you will feel how full your breasts are.
• C. Since you are so concerned, you should probably supplement breastfeeding with formula.
• D. If your baby's urine is straw-colored, she's getting enough milk.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Reassuring the mother that the baby's urine color can be an indicator of adequate hydration can help her feel more confident in her breastfeeding.

3. When caring for a pregnant woman with cardiac problems, the nurse must be alert for the signs and symptoms of cardiac decompensation. Which critical findings would the nurse find on assessment of the client experiencing this condition?

• A. Regular heart rate and hypertension.
• B. Increased urinary output, tachycardia, and dry cough.
• C. Shortness of breath, bradycardia, and hypertension.
• D. Dyspnea, crackles, and an irregular, weak pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In pregnant women with cardiac problems, signs of cardiac decompensation include dyspnea, crackles, an irregular, weak, and rapid pulse, rapid respirations, a moist and frequent cough, generalized edema, increasing fatigue, and cyanosis of the lips and nailbeds. Choice A is incorrect as a regular heart rate and hypertension are not typically associated with cardiac decompensation. Choice B is incorrect as increased urinary output and dry cough are not indicative of cardiac decompensation, only tachycardia is. Choice C is incorrect as bradycardia and hypertension are not typically seen in cardiac decompensation; dyspnea is a critical sign instead.

4. According to a survey by Adhikari and Liu in the year 2013, at birth, women have:

• A. close to 100,000 ova.
• B. around 300,000 to 400,000 ova.
• C. around 100 to 200 ova.
• D. only 500 ova.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Women are born with approximately 300,000 to 400,000 ova, which gradually decrease in number as they age. Choice A ('close to 100,000 ova.') is incorrect as the actual number is much higher. Choice C ('around 100 to 200 ova.') is incorrect as it underestimates the quantity significantly. Choice D ('only 500 ova.') is incorrect as it greatly underestimates the number of ova present at birth.

5. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate 14/min
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

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