an individuals reflects both genetic and environmental influences
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Maternity HESI Test Bank

1. An individual’s phenotype reflects both genetic and environmental influences.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: phenotype. A phenotype is the observable characteristics of an individual, which result from the interaction of their genotype with the environment. This interaction between genetics and the environment determines how genes are expressed and how traits are manifested in an individual. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because chromosomes, alleles, and genotypes are components of an individual's genetic makeup, but they do not directly reflect the observable traits influenced by both genetics and the environment.

2. Which of the following statements is true of a sperm cell?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sperm cell is indeed one of the smallest cells in the human body, much smaller than an egg cell. Choice A is incorrect as sperm cells are much smaller than egg cells. Choice B is incorrect because a sperm cell carries either an X or a Y chromosome, not two Y chromosomes. Choice C is incorrect since sperm cells move in a purposeful manner guided by various factors within a woman's reproductive tract, not randomly.

3. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.

4. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

5. A newborn nursery protocol includes a prescription for ophthalmic erythromycin 5% ointment to both eyes upon a newborn's admission. What action should the nurse take to ensure adequate installation of the ointment?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To ensure adequate installation of the ophthalmic erythromycin 5% ointment in a newborn, the nurse should instill a thin ribbon into each lower conjunctival sac. This method helps to ensure proper distribution and effectiveness of the medication to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Occluding the inner canthus after retracting the eyelids, mummy wrapping the infant, or stabilizing the instilling hand on the neonate's head are not appropriate actions for ensuring the proper installation of the ointment.

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