Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working on a med-surg unit is managing the care of four clients. The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is at risk for pressure ulcers and has an albumin level of 4.2 g/dL
• B. A client with type 1 DM who uses an insulin pump
• C. A client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds
• D. A client with orthostatic hypotension receiving IV fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for a client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds to ensure comprehensive care coordination. In this case, the need for a conference may be to discuss potential adjustments in heparin therapy, monitor for adverse effects, or ensure proper anticoagulation levels. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically indicate the need for interdisciplinary collaboration related to the client's condition or treatment. Therefore, they are not the priority for scheduling an interdisciplinary conference.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has meningitis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

• A. Generalized rash over trunk
• B. Increased temperature
• C. Decreased level of consciousness
• D. Report of photophobia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased level of consciousness. In a client with meningitis, a decreased level of consciousness is a critical finding that should be reported immediately. This could indicate increased intracranial pressure or neurological deterioration, requiring prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are important in the assessment of meningitis but are not as immediately concerning as a decreased level of consciousness. A generalized rash over the trunk can be seen in meningococcal meningitis, an increased temperature is expected due to the inflammatory response, and photophobia is a common symptom due to meningeal irritation.

3. A nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client who is unconscious following a motor-vehicle crash. The client requires immediate surgery. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Transport the client to the operating room without verifying informed consent
• B. Ask the anesthesiologist to sign the consent
• C. Obtain telephone consent from the facility administrator before the surgery
• D. Delay the surgery until the nurse can obtain informed consent

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is unconscious and requires immediate surgery, implied consent applies. Implied consent allows healthcare providers, including nurses, to proceed with necessary treatment or surgery without formally verifying informed consent. Choice A is correct because the priority in this scenario is to ensure the client receives timely medical intervention to address life-threatening conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because in emergencies, waiting to obtain formal consent can delay critical treatment, risking the client's health and well-being.

4. Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name.

• A. The fourth cranial nerve: The trochlear nerve
• B. The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve
• C. The tenth cranial nerve: The olfactory nerve
• D. The thirteenth cranial nerve: The auditory nerve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The twelfth cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve, which controls the muscles of the tongue. The other choices are incorrect because the trochlear nerve is the fourth cranial nerve responsible for eye movement, the olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve responsible for the sense of smell, and there are only twelve cranial nerves, so there is no thirteenth cranial nerve.

5. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

• A. Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath
• B. Shallow respirations and severe abdominal pain
• C. Decreased respirations and increased urine output
• D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations and foul-smelling urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

Similar Questions