Nursing Elites

1. A nurse working in the emergency department is assessing several clients. Which of the following clients is the highest priority?

• A. A client who reports right-sided flank pain and is diaphoretic
• B. A client who has active bleeding from a puncture wound of the left groin area
• C. A client who has a raised red skin rash on his arms, neck, and face
• D. A client who reports shortness of breath and left neck and shoulder pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because shortness of breath with referred pain may indicate a serious condition, such as a cardiac event or pulmonary embolism, making this the highest priority. Option A, flank pain with diaphoresis, could suggest kidney-related issues but is not as immediately life-threatening as compromised breathing. Option B, active bleeding, though serious, can usually be controlled with proper interventions. Option C, a raised red skin rash, may indicate an allergic reaction but is not as urgent as respiratory distress with neck and shoulder pain.

2. Why is patient confidentiality significant in healthcare?

• A. Sharing patient information freely
• B. Protecting patient privacy
• C. Ignoring patient consent
• D. Limiting patient access to their own records

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Patient confidentiality is significant in healthcare because it involves protecting patient privacy. Maintaining confidentiality ensures that patients feel safe and secure when sharing sensitive information with healthcare providers. Choice A is incorrect because sharing patient information freely would violate confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect because ignoring patient consent goes against ethical principles. Choice D is incorrect because limiting patient access to their own records does not relate directly to the concept of patient confidentiality.

3. A nurse in a long-term care facility is caring for a client who reports the AP repositioned him in bed using excessive force. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Document in the client's chart that an incident report has been filed.
• B. Contact the nurse manager.
• C. Reassure the client that the staff is well trained.
• D. Call risk management to interview the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to contact the nurse manager. By doing so, the nurse can escalate the issue appropriately, ensuring that the incident is addressed and necessary actions are taken. Documenting in the client's chart that an incident report has been filed (Choice A) may be necessary but should not be the first step. Reassuring the client that the staff is well trained (Choice C) does not address the client's concern and the need for intervention. Calling risk management to interview the client (Choice D) may be premature at this stage and should be handled by the nurse manager first.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is preparing to care for a client who arrived via ambulance. The client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Proceed with treatment without obtaining written consent
• B. Contact the client's next of kin to obtain consent for treatment
• C. Have the client sign a consent for treatment
• D. Notify risk management before initiating treatment

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In emergency situations where a client is disoriented and has a cardiac arrhythmia, obtaining written consent may not be possible due to the urgency of the situation. The priority is to provide immediate treatment to ensure patient safety. Contacting the next of kin or having the client sign a consent form would cause unnecessary delays in providing critical care. Notifying risk management before initiating treatment is not the most appropriate action when dealing with a time-sensitive situation like a cardiac arrhythmia.

5. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

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