Nursing Elites

1. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?

• A. Dizziness when standing.
• B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Fever of 102°F.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.

2. A 27-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric hospital with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder, manic phase. She is demanding and active. Which intervention should the nurse include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Schedule noncompetitive activities that can be carried out alone.
• B. Monitor her decision-making process.
• C. Encourage her to identify feelings of anger.
• D. Provide a structured environment with little stimuli.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients in the manic phase of bipolar disorder require a structured environment with decreased stimuli to help manage their symptoms. Providing a structured environment with little stimuli (D) can help reduce the risk of escalating behaviors. Scheduling noncompetitive activities that can be carried out alone (A) is more appropriate than group activities as excessive stimuli should be avoided. Monitoring decision-making processes (B) is important due to impulsivity in manic phases. Encouraging the client to identify feelings of anger (C) is not the priority in managing manic symptoms, as it is more often associated with depression than bipolar disorder.

3. A client with depression is prescribed an SSRI. The client asks, 'Why do I need to take this medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. This medication will help balance the chemicals in your brain.
• B. This medication needs to be taken regularly to be effective.
• C. This medication will start working immediately to improve your mood.
• D. You should take this medication only when you feel sad or depressed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining that the medication may take several weeks to take full effect helps manage the client's expectations and encourages adherence to the prescribed treatment.

4. A client with schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric care unit for aggressive behavior, auditory hallucinations, and potential for self-harm. The client has not been taking medications as prescribed and insists that the food has been poisoned and refuses to eat. What intervention should the RN implement?

• A. Assure the client that all food served in the hospital is safe to eat.
• B. Tell the client that irrational thinking is a symptom of schizophrenia.
• C. Obtain an order for a tube feeding for the client.
• D. Provide the client with food in unopened containers.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to provide the client with food in unopened containers. This approach can help alleviate the client's fear of poisoning and encourage eating. Choice A may not address the client's specific fear and may be perceived as dismissive. Choice B, while providing information about symptoms of schizophrenia, does not address the immediate issue of the client's refusal to eat due to the fear of poisoning. Choice C of obtaining an order for tube feeding is premature and invasive before exploring less restrictive options.

5. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

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