HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health 2023
1. A male client who is participating in an anger management assignment asks if he can make a leather belt in occupational therapy. The client begins pounding the leather vigorously with a mallet to imprint designs on the belt. What defense mechanism is the client using?
- A. Sublimation
- B. Suppression
- C. Regression
- D. Compensation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sublimation. Sublimation is a defense mechanism where unacceptable impulses are redirected into socially acceptable activities, such as art or work. In this scenario, the client is channeling his anger into a creative and constructive task like making a leather belt. Choice B, Suppression, involves consciously pushing down or hiding feelings rather than expressing them through alternate means. Choice C, Regression, refers to reverting to earlier, immature behaviors when faced with stress. Choice D, Compensation, involves making up for a perceived weakness in one area by excelling in another, which is not demonstrated in the scenario provided.
2. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is hospitalized for treatment. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to include in the client's plan of care?
- A. Allow the client to engage in compulsive behaviors as a way to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to ignore the compulsive behaviors.
- C. Help the client to understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors.
- D. Work with the client to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with OCD is to work with them to gradually reduce the frequency of compulsive behaviors. This approach helps the client manage their condition effectively without causing undue distress. Allowing the client to engage in compulsive behaviors can reinforce the disorder rather than alleviate it. Encouraging the client to ignore compulsive behaviors does not address the core issue of OCD. While helping the client understand the purpose of compulsive behaviors can be beneficial, actively working to reduce these behaviors is more crucial in the treatment of OCD.
3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What laboratory test is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Liver function tests
- B. Kidney function tests
- C. White blood cell count
- D. Blood glucose levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: White blood cell count. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this condition early. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while liver and kidney function tests are important in monitoring other aspects of health, the most critical concern with clozapine therapy is the risk of agranulocytosis, making monitoring white blood cell count the priority.
4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The client asks how long it will take for the medication to start working. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. You should start feeling better within a few days.
- B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice an improvement.
- C. Buspirone works immediately to reduce anxiety symptoms.
- D. You will need to take this medication for at least a year.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Buspirone typically takes 2 to 4 weeks to become fully effective. It is essential to inform the client that it may take some time before they notice an improvement. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone does not work immediately. Choice C is also incorrect as buspirone does not provide immediate relief. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a longer duration of treatment than necessary.
5. The nurse observes a client who is admitted to the mental health unit and identifies that the client is talking continuously, using words that rhyme but that have no context or relationship with one topic to the next in the conversation. This client's behavior and thought processes are consistent with which syndrome?
- A. Dementia
- B. Depression
- C. Schizophrenia
- D. Chronic brain syndrome
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client is demonstrating symptoms of schizophrenia, such as disorganized speech that may include word salad (a type of communication that mixes real and imaginary words in no logical order), incoherent speech, and clanging (rhyming). Dementia (Choice A) is characterized by memory loss and cognitive decline, not by disorganized speech. Depression (Choice B) typically presents with persistent feelings of sadness and loss of interest, not disorganized speech. Chronic brain syndrome (Choice D) is a vague term and does not specifically describe the symptoms mentioned in the scenario.
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