a teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health 2023

1. A teenaged male client is admitted to the postoperative unit following open reduction of a fractured femur which occurred when he fell down the stairs at a party. The nurse notices needle marks on the client's arms and plans to observe for narcotic withdrawal. Early signs of narcotic withdrawal include which assessment findings?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps are early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Vomiting, seizures, and loss of consciousness (Option A) are more indicative of severe withdrawal or overdose symptoms. Depression, fatigue, and dizziness (Option B) are not typically early signs of narcotic withdrawal. Hypotension, shallow respirations, and dilated pupils (Option C) are more associated with opioid overdose rather than withdrawal. Monitoring for agitation, sweating, and abdominal cramps is crucial for managing narcotic withdrawal symptoms effectively.

2. A nurse working in the emergency room of a children's hospital admits a child whose injuries could have resulted from abuse. Which statement most accurately describes the nurse's responsibility in cases of suspected child abuse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Report any case of suspected child abuse.' Nurses are mandated reporters, which means they are legally obligated to report any suspicions of child abuse to appropriate authorities to ensure the child's safety. This responsibility overrides the need to gather additional data or confirm suspicions with others before reporting. Choice A is incorrect because delaying reporting to gather more data may risk the child's safety. Choice B is incorrect because reporting suspicions promptly is crucial, and waiting to confirm with another healthcare provider could delay necessary intervention. Choice D is incorrect as the priority is to report suspicions promptly rather than focusing on documenting injuries to confirm abuse.

3. A client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is still withdrawn, unkempt, and unmotivated to get out of bed. A mental health aide asks the nurse why the client is this way after being on fluphenazine (Prolix) 10 mg for 7 days. The LPN/LVN should tell the health aide:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prolixin is more effective with positive symptoms of schizophrenia, such as hallucinations and delusions, rather than negative symptoms like withdrawal and lack of motivation.

4. A client diagnosed with undifferentiated schizophrenia is being discharged on aripiprazole (Abilify) 5 mg every night. When developing the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects, which of the following should the nurse include? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Torticollis. Common side effects of aripiprazole include headaches, mild anxiety, and insomnia. These side effects are manageable during treatment. Torticollis is not a common adverse effect associated with aripiprazole and is more commonly seen with other medications or conditions. Therefore, the nurse should not include torticollis in the teaching plan about the most common adverse effects of aripiprazole.

5. A client with panic disorder is experiencing a panic attack. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Encouraging slow, deep breathing is the priority intervention during a panic attack as it can help reduce the physiological symptoms and assist the client in regaining control. This technique can help decrease hyperventilation and promote relaxation. Choice B, asking the client to describe sensations, may be beneficial after the panic attack has subsided to gain insight into triggers or manifestations. Choice C, encouraging the client to focus on a calming image, can be helpful in managing anxiety but may not be as effective during the acute phase of a panic attack. Choice D, administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan), should only be considered if the client does not respond to initial non-pharmacological interventions or if the symptoms are severe and unmanageable.

Similar Questions

Which client outcome indicates improvement for a client who is admitted with auditory hallucinations?
A client with Alzheimer's disease is becoming increasingly agitated and combative in the late afternoon. What is the most appropriate intervention?
A client who has just been sexually assaulted is calm and quiet. The nurse analyzes this behavior as indicating which defense mechanism?
A client with an eating disorder is planning to attend group meetings with Overeaters Anonymous. The LPN/LVN describes this group to the client, knowing that which finding(s) are characteristic of this form of self-help group? Select one that does not apply.
A female client in an acute care facility has been on antipsychotic medications for the past three days. Her psychotic behaviors have decreased and she has had no adverse reactions. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. What action should the nurse initiate?

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