HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. What is the most important action for preventing infection in a client with a central venous catheter?
- A. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours.
- B. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily.
- C. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use.
- D. Maintaining sterile technique when handling the catheter.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when handling a central venous catheter is crucial in preventing infections. This action helps minimize the introduction of pathogens into the catheter site, reducing the risk of contamination and subsequent infection. Changing the catheter dressing every 72 hours, while important, does not directly address the prevention of infection at the insertion site. Flushing the catheter with heparin solution daily helps prevent occlusion but does not primarily focus on infection prevention. Ensuring the catheter is clamped when not in use is essential for preventing air embolism but does not directly relate to infection control.
2. A healthcare provider is receiving a prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the healthcare provider clarify?
- A. Dietitian consult
- B. Speech therapy referral
- C. Oral suction at the bedside
- D. Clear liquids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at high risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids. Therefore, the healthcare provider should clarify the prescription for clear liquids and consider recommending thickened liquids instead to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice A, 'Dietitian consult,' is essential to ensure the client receives appropriate nutrition tailored to their condition. Choice B, 'Speech therapy referral,' is crucial for dysphagia management and rehabilitation. Choice C, 'Oral suction at the bedside,' is a standard intervention to maintain airway patency and is not contraindicated in clients with dysphagia.
3. What intervention can help prevent atelectasis and pneumonia in a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
- A. Active and passive range of motion exercises twice a day
- B. Every 4 hours incentive spirometer
- C. Chest physiotherapy twice a day
- D. Repositioning every 2 hours around the clock
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chest physiotherapy is essential for clients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. Chest physiotherapy aids in clearing secretions, maintaining lung function, and preventing respiratory complications. Active and passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are important for maintaining joint mobility but are not directly associated with preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS. Incentive spirometer use every 4 hours (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion and preventing atelectasis but may not be as effective as chest physiotherapy in managing secretions. Repositioning every 2 hours (Choice D) is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
5. When caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and circulatory insufficiency, experiencing peripheral neuropathy and urinary incontinence, on which areas does the nurse focus care?
- A. Decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment
- B. Decreased caloric intake and accelerated wound healing
- C. High risk for skin infection and low saliva pH level
- D. High risk for impaired venous return and dementia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should focus on decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment due to the patient's conditions. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to decreased pain sensation, making the patient more prone to injuries without realizing it. Additionally, the combination of circulatory insufficiency, peripheral neuropathy, and urinary incontinence can increase the risk of skin breakdown and impaired healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific issues related to the patient's diagnoses and symptoms.
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