Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing care to a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

• A. Irrigate the catheter with sterile water daily.
• B. Empty the catheter bag every 8 hours.
• C. Clean the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily.
• D. Secure the catheter to the client's thigh.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Securing the catheter to the client's thigh is the correct action to prevent CAUTIs. By securing the catheter, movement is minimized, reducing the risk of introducing bacteria into the urinary tract. Choice A is incorrect because routine irrigation of the catheter is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as emptying the catheter bag every 8 hours is important for proper drainage but does not directly prevent CAUTIs. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution does not address the main source of CAUTIs related to catheter care.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which of the following client identifiers should the healthcare professional use to ensure medication safety?

• A. Ask the client to state their full name.
• B. Ask the client for their date of birth.
• C. Compare the client's wristband with the medication administration record.
• D. Ask the client for their room number.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Comparing the client's wristband with the medication administration record is a crucial step in ensuring medication safety. The wristband typically contains unique identifiers such as the client's name, date of birth, and medical record number, which should be cross-checked with the medication administration record to confirm the correct patient. Asking the client to state their name (Choice A) or date of birth (Choice B) may not be as reliable as the information can be misunderstood or miscommunicated. Asking for the room number (Choice D) is not a reliable client identifier for medication administration and does not confirm the patient's identity accurately.

3. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

4. Which goal is most appropriate for a patient who has had a total hip replacement?

• A. The patient will ambulate briskly on the treadmill by the time of discharge.
• B. The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge.
• C. The nurse will assist the patient to ambulate in the hall 2 times a day.
• D. The patient will ambulate by the time of discharge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The goal 'The patient will walk 100 feet using a walker by the time of discharge' is the most appropriate goal for a patient who has had a total hip replacement because it is specific, measurable, achievable, and individualized. This goal sets a clear target for the patient's mobility progress post-surgery. Choice A is too vague and does not provide a specific target distance or method of ambulation. Choice C focuses on the nurse's actions rather than the patient's progress. Choice D lacks specificity in terms of distance or assistance required, making it less measurable and individualized compared to Choice B.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

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