Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing care to a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

• A. Irrigate the catheter with sterile water daily.
• B. Empty the catheter bag every 8 hours.
• C. Clean the perineal area with antiseptic solution daily.
• D. Secure the catheter to the client's thigh.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Securing the catheter to the client's thigh is the correct action to prevent CAUTIs. By securing the catheter, movement is minimized, reducing the risk of introducing bacteria into the urinary tract. Choice A is incorrect because routine irrigation of the catheter is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect as emptying the catheter bag every 8 hours is important for proper drainage but does not directly prevent CAUTIs. Choice C is incorrect because cleaning the perineal area with antiseptic solution does not address the main source of CAUTIs related to catheter care.

2. A nurse is reviewing evidence-based practice principles about the administration of oxygen therapy with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

• A. Regulate oxygen via nasal cannula at a flow rate no more than 6 L/min
• B. Administer oxygen at a higher flow rate for better saturation
• C. Use a high-flow nasal cannula for all clients
• D. Adjust oxygen flow based on client comfort

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Regulating oxygen flow at no more than 6 L/min via nasal cannula is a safe practice to prevent potential complications such as oxygen toxicity. Option B suggesting administering oxygen at a higher flow rate for better saturation is incorrect as it can lead to adverse effects. Option C is incorrect because using a high-flow nasal cannula for all clients is not necessary and should be based on individual client needs. Option D is incorrect as adjusting oxygen flow solely based on client comfort without considering the prescribed flow rate can compromise the effectiveness of oxygen therapy.

3. Which assessment data reflects the need for nurses to include the problem, “Risk for falls,” in a client’s plan of care?

• A. Recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL
• B. Opioid analgesic received one hour ago
• C. Stooped posture with an unsteady gait
• D. Expressed feelings of depression

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The recent administration of opioid analgesics increases the risk for falls due to potential side effects such as sedation and dizziness. Choice A, a recent serum hemoglobin level of 16 g/dL, is not directly related to the risk for falls. Choice C, stooped posture with an unsteady gait, may indicate an existing risk but does not directly reflect the need to include 'Risk for falls' in the care plan. Choice D, expressed feelings of depression, is important to address but is not directly associated with the risk for falls.

4. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?

• A. SBAR
• B. SOAP
• C. PIE
• D. DAR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.

5. A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the LPN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN should monitor potassium levels closely while the client is taking furosemide (Lasix) due to the medication's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring potassium in this context. Calcium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are not typically affected by furosemide and are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.

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