Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. The healthcare provider is providing postoperative care to a client who had a submucosal resection (SMR) for a deviated septum. The healthcare provider should monitor for what complication associated with this type of surgery?

• A. Occipital headache
• B. Periorbital crepitus
• C. Expectoration of blood
• D. Changes in vocalization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Expectoration of blood is a potential complication following SMR surgery, as it may indicate bleeding postoperatively. In contrast, occipital headache (choice A) is not a common complication associated with SMR surgery. Periorbital crepitus (choice B) is more related to facial fractures or certain infections rather than SMR surgery. Changes in vocalization (choice D) are not typically associated with complications following SMR surgery.

3. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

4. The caregiver is teaching parents about the diet for a 4-month-old infant with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration. In addition to oral rehydration fluids, the diet should include

• A. Formula or breast milk
• B. Broth and tea
• C. Rice cereal and apple juice
• D. Gelatin and ginger ale

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Formula or breast milk. In infants with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration, it is essential to continue feeding them with formula or breast milk along with oral rehydration fluids to provide adequate nutrition and maintain hydration. Option B, broth and tea, may not provide the necessary nutrients and electrolytes needed for the infant's recovery. Option C, rice cereal and apple juice, can be harsh on the digestive system and may exacerbate diarrhea. Option D, gelatin and ginger ale, do not provide the necessary nutrients and can worsen the condition due to the high sugar content in ginger ale.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following measures should the professional take to prevent the spread of infection?

• A. Place a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow
• B. Use a disposable gown for contact precautions
• C. Place a client with MRSA in a private room
• D. Use a mask for clients with influenza

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tuberculosis is an airborne infection, and placing a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing the pathogens. This measure is crucial as it prevents the dissemination of TB droplet nuclei to other areas. Choice B, using a disposable gown for contact precautions, is important for preventing the transmission of infections spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, placing a client with MRSA in a private room, is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA through contact with others. Choice D, using a mask for clients with influenza, helps prevent the spread of influenza through respiratory droplets. However, negative pressure airflow is specifically required for airborne infections like TB, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

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