Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?

• A. At the time of admission
• B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
• C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
• D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.

3. A client receives the influenza vaccine in a clinic. Within 15 minutes after the immunization, the client complains of itchy and watery eyes, increased anxiety, and difficulty breathing. What should be the first action in the sequence of care for this client?

• A. Maintain the airway
• B. Administer epinephrine 1:1000 as ordered
• C. Monitor for hypotension with shock
• D. Administer diphenhydramine as ordered

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction, a severe allergic response. The priority action in an anaphylactic reaction is to administer epinephrine. Epinephrine helps counteract the severe allergic response, improves breathing difficulties, and maintains airway and circulation. Administering epinephrine takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition. Options A, C, and D may be necessary in the management of anaphylaxis, but the immediate priority is to administer epinephrine to address the life-threatening symptoms.

4. When a client decides not to have surgery despite significant blockages of the coronary arteries, it is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Nonmaleficence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that upholds an individual's right to make decisions about their healthcare, including the choice to refuse treatment or surgery. In this scenario, the client's decision not to have surgery despite the recommendation is an exercise of autonomy. Choice A, fidelity, refers to being faithful and keeping promises, which is not applicable in this situation. Choice C, justice, pertains to fair and equal distribution of resources and treatment, not the individual's right to make decisions. Choice D, nonmaleficence, relates to the obligation to do no harm, which is not directly applicable to the client's decision to refuse surgery.

5. A client asks a nurse about the purpose of advance directives.

• A. Indicate a form of treatment a client is willing to accept.
• B. Specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment.
• C. Determine the client's daily medication schedule.
• D. Outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advance directives serve to indicate the forms of medical treatment a client wishes to receive or decline in the event they are unable to communicate their preferences. This legal document allows individuals to make decisions about their future healthcare. Choice B is incorrect as advance directives do not specify the client's preferred hospital for treatment. Choice C is incorrect as advance directives do not determine the client's daily medication schedule; this is typically addressed in a medication administration record. Choice D is incorrect as advance directives do not outline the client's financial status and insurance coverage, but rather focus on healthcare treatment preferences.

Similar Questions