the healthcare provider prescribes 1000 ml of ringers lactate with 30 units of pitocin to run in over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

3. A client requires bed rest and has a prescription for anti-embolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to remove the anti-embolic stockings at least once per shift. This is essential to assess the client's circulation and skin integrity. Option A is incorrect because the stockings should be applied without creases to ensure proper compression. Option B is incorrect as the stockings should be applied when the client's legs are elevated, not in a dependent position. Option D is incorrect as removing the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair is not necessary and does not provide the appropriate assessment opportunity.

4. A patient is placed in the Sims' position. Which areas will the nurse observe for pressure points?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is placed in the Sims' position, the nurse should observe pressure points on the ileum, clavicle, humerus, knees, and ankles. Choice A is incorrect as the chin and hips are not typically pressure points in the Sims' position. Choice C is incorrect as the shoulder and anterior iliac spine are not commonly observed pressure points in this position. Choice D is also incorrect as the occipital region of the head, coccyx, and heels are not pressure points commonly associated with the Sims' position.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who is immobile and needs to be turned every 2 hours. The patient has poor lower extremity circulation, and the nurse is concerned about irritation of the patient's toes. Which device will the nurse use?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A foot cradle is the correct choice for this situation. A foot cradle is used to reduce pressure on the tips of a patient's toes in individuals with poor lower extremity circulation. Hand rolls are not designed to address toe irritation specifically. A trapeze bar is used to assist patients with repositioning in bed, and a trochanter roll is used to support the hips and prevent external rotation of the legs, neither of which directly address toe irritation in this scenario.

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