the healthcare provider prescribes 1000 ml of ringers lactate with 30 units of pitocin to run in over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. When assessing bowel sounds, what action should a healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing bowel sounds, it is crucial to listen before performing any palpation as palpation can alter bowel sounds. The correct technique involves placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope over each quadrant of the abdomen to listen for bowel sounds. Auscultating for at least 5 minutes is recommended to accurately determine the presence or absence of bowel sounds. Asking the client to cough is not necessary for assessing bowel sounds and may not provide relevant information. Therefore, option C is the correct choice as it follows the appropriate procedure for assessing bowel sounds.

3. When initiating cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), what assessment finding must the healthcare provider confirm before beginning chest compressions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Absence of a pulse. Prior to initiating chest compressions during CPR, it is essential to confirm the absence of a pulse. Chest compressions are indicated when there is no detectable pulse as it signifies cardiac arrest. Checking for a pulse is a critical step to ensure that CPR is performed on individuals who truly require it. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because focusing on the presence of a pulse, respiratory rate, or blood pressure before starting chest compressions can delay life-saving interventions in a person experiencing cardiac arrest.

4. A client is lying on the bathroom floor after a nurse responds to a call light. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority in this situation is to assess the client for injuries. Checking for injuries first is crucial to determine the extent of harm caused by the fall and to provide immediate care. Moving hazardous objects can wait until the client's safety is ensured. Notifying the provider and asking the client about how she felt prior to the fall are important but are secondary to assessing for injuries in this urgent scenario. It is essential to address immediate physical needs before investigating the cause of the fall or notifying other healthcare team members.

5. Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.

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