Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. A nurse is discussing the nursing process with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse should the nurse identify as appropriate for the planning step of the nursing process?

• A. “I will determine the most important client problems that we should address.”
• B. “I will review the past medical history on the client’s record to gather more information.”
• C. “I will carry out the new prescriptions from the provider.”
• D. “I will ask the client if their nausea has resolved.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the nursing process, the planning step involves determining priorities and goals based on the identified problems. Choice A is correct as it reflects the nurse's role in identifying the most important client problems to address, which aligns with the planning phase. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B involves data collection, which is a part of the assessment phase, not planning. Choice C pertains to the implementation of care, which occurs after the planning phase. Choice D involves evaluation of a specific intervention, not planning.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory values for a client who has a positive Chvostek's sign. Which of the following laboratory findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Decreased calcium
• B. Elevated potassium
• C. Increased sodium
• D. Low hemoglobin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign is a clinical indication of low calcium levels, known as hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, resulting in facial muscle twitching. The correct laboratory finding associated with a positive Chvostek's sign is decreased calcium. Elevated potassium (Choice B) is not typically associated with Chvostek's sign but can be seen in conditions like renal failure. Increased sodium (Choice C) is not directly related to Chvostek's sign and is more commonly associated with hypernatremia. Low hemoglobin (Choice D) is not the expected laboratory finding in a client with a positive Chvostek's sign; instead, it suggests anemia, which is unrelated to this clinical manifestation.

4. A client reports increased pain following physical therapy. Which of the following questions should be asked to assess the quality of the pain?

• A. Is your pain sharp or dull?
• B. Is your pain constant or intermittent?
• C. On a scale from 1 to 10, how severe is your pain?
• D. Where exactly is your pain located?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A. Asking whether the pain is sharp or dull helps in determining the quality of the pain. Sharp pain is often associated with acute conditions, while dull pain may indicate chronic issues. Choices B, C, and D focus on different aspects of pain assessment. Option B pertains to the pattern of pain, either constant or intermittent. Option C addresses the severity of pain on a numerical scale. Option D inquires about the location of pain. While all these questions are essential in pain assessment, when specifically evaluating the quality of pain, distinguishing between sharp and dull sensations is crucial.

5. When assessing the respiratory system for complications of immobility, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Inspect chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle.
• B. Auscultate the entire lung region to assess lung sounds.
• C. Focus auscultation on the upper lung fields.
• D. Assess the patient at least every 4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when assessing the respiratory system for complications of immobility is to auscultate the entire lung region. This approach allows the nurse to identify any diminished breath sounds, crackles, or wheezes that may indicate respiratory issues. Inspecting chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle (Choice A) may not provide a comprehensive assessment of lung sounds. Focusing auscultation on the upper lung fields (Choice C) may miss important findings in the lower lung fields. Assessing the patient at least every 4 hours (Choice D) is important for monitoring overall patient condition but does not specifically address the assessment of respiratory complications related to immobility.

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