the healthcare provider prescribes 1000 ml of ringers lactate with 30 units of pitocin to run in over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. How many times per hour should the nurse encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use the incentive spirometer 4-5 times per hour is the correct approach post-gallbladder surgery under general anesthesia. This frequency helps prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, by promoting lung expansion. Choices B, C, and D suggest either too few or too many sessions per hour, which may not be optimal for the client's respiratory recovery needs. It is important to strike a balance between ensuring adequate lung expansion and not overexerting the client, which is why 4-5 times per hour is the recommended frequency.

3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client in active labor. Which pattern on the fetal heart monitor requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late decelerations are concerning as they indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, potentially resulting in fetal hypoxia. Immediate intervention is necessary to address the underlying cause and ensure fetal well-being. Early decelerations are typically benign and associated with head compression during contractions. Accelerations are reassuring and indicate fetal well-being. Moderate variability is a normal finding and indicates a healthy autonomic nervous system response. Therefore, late decelerations (Choice B) require immediate attention, while the other patterns are generally considered normal or benign during labor.

4. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.

5. Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.

Similar Questions

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