Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. A nurse on a medical unit is preparing to discharge a client to home. Which of the following actions should the nurse take as part of the medication reconciliation process?

• A. Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization.
• B. Only review the client’s current medications.
• C. Provide a list of medications without checking for interactions.
• D. Discuss the client’s medication history without verification.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Compare prescriptions with medications the client received during hospitalization. This step is crucial in ensuring the accuracy of medication reconciliation. By comparing the current prescriptions with the medications administered during the hospital stay, the nurse can identify any discrepancies, omissions, or duplications in the medications. This comprehensive comparison helps prevent medication errors and ensures that the client's home medications align with the treatment received in the hospital. Choice B is incorrect because solely reviewing the client's current medications may overlook important changes or additions made during the hospitalization. Choice C is incorrect as providing a list of medications without checking for interactions can lead to potential adverse effects or drug interactions. Choice D is incorrect as discussing the client's medication history without verification may not provide an accurate representation of the medications the client actually received during the hospital stay.

3. A client with a terminal illness is being educated by a healthcare provider about declining resuscitation in a living will. The client asks, “What would happen if I arrived at the ED and I had difficulty breathing?”

• A. We would give you oxygen through a tube in your nose.
• B. We would initiate full resuscitation efforts.
• C. We would consult the living will and provide comfort care.
• D. We would not provide any medical intervention.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client has a living will that declines resuscitation. Therefore, if the client arrives at the emergency department with difficulty breathing, healthcare providers would consult the living will to understand the client's wishes. Providing comfort care, which may include oxygen therapy to alleviate symptoms, aligns with the client's preferences. Option A incorrectly suggests an intervention that goes against the client's wishes. Option B is incorrect because full resuscitation efforts are not in line with the client's choice to decline resuscitation. Option D is also incorrect as it does not consider the client's living will and the need to provide care according to the documented preferences of the client.

4. A client is admitted to the emergency room following an acute asthma attack. Which of the following assessments would be expected by the nurse?

• A. Diffuse expiratory wheezing
• B. Loose, productive cough
• C. No relief from inhaler
• D. Fever and chills

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, one of the expected assessments by the nurse would be diffuse expiratory wheezing. This occurs due to narrowed airways and increased airflow velocity. Choice B, a loose productive cough, is not typically associated with an asthma attack. Choice C, no relief from inhaler, may indicate ineffective treatment but is not a direct assessment finding related to the physical examination. Choice D, fever and chills, are not typical symptoms of an asthma attack and would not be expected findings during the initial assessment of an acute asthma attack.

5. The female is caring for a male patient who is uncircumcised but not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities. The nurse is providing the patient with a partial bed bath. How should perineal care be performed for this patient?

• A. Should be postponed because it may cause embarrassment.
• B. Should be unnecessary because the patient is uncircumcised.
• C. Should be done by the patient.
• D. Should be done by the nurse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Perineal care should be encouraged to be done by the patient if they are capable of performing self-care. In this scenario, the patient is not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities, indicating that the patient can independently perform perineal care. Encouraging self-care promotes independence and maintains the patient's dignity. Postponing perineal care (Choice A) is incorrect because it is essential for hygiene. Choice B is incorrect as perineal care is necessary for all patients regardless of circumcision status. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is capable of performing the care independently, and promoting self-care is a priority in nursing practice.

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