the healthcare provider prescribes 1000 ml of ringers lactate with 30 units of pitocin to run in over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes morphine sulfate 4mg IM STAT. Morphine comes in 8 mg per ml. How many ml should the LPN/LVN administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To administer 4 mg of morphine, as prescribed, the LPN/LVN needs to calculate the correct volume based on the concentration provided (8 mg per ml). Since the desired dose is 4 mg, half of 8 mg (0.5 ml) is required to administer the correct amount. Therefore, the correct answer is 0.5 ml. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they would either underdose or overdose the patient.

4. A nurse in a provider’s office is caring for a client who states, “I always have trouble sleeping.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to identify the client’s typical bedtime routine. Understanding the client’s sleep habits, environment, and bedtime rituals can provide valuable insight into potential factors contributing to their sleep troubles. Teaching stress reduction techniques (choice A) may be beneficial but should come after understanding the client's routine. Recommending avoiding caffeine intake in the evening (choice B) and encouraging regular daytime exercise (choice D) are important interventions, but identifying the bedtime routine takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's immediate concern.

5. While caring for a client who, while sitting in a chair, starts to experience a seizure, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is to lower the client to the floor to prevent injury and ensure their safety. Placing a pad under the client's head helps protect the head from injury. Choice B, holding the client's head still, is incorrect as it can lead to harm; it's essential to allow movement during a seizure to prevent neck injury. Choice C, restraining the client, is dangerous and can cause harm by restricting movement. Choice D, placing the client in a supine position, is also not recommended during a seizure as it does not provide adequate protection for the client.

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