Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

2. A client expresses pain during dressing changes postoperatively. Which intervention should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Encourage the client to relax and take deep breaths during the dressing change.
• B. Educate the client about the importance of pain management postoperatively.
• C. Assist the client to a comfortable position for the dressing change.
• D. Administer pain medication 45 minutes before changing the client's dressing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to address the client's immediate physiological need for comfort and pain relief during the dressing change. Administering pain medication 45 minutes before the procedure can help alleviate the pain experienced by the client. Encouraging relaxation techniques (choice A) is beneficial but may not provide sufficient pain relief during the dressing change. Educating about the importance of pain management (choice B) is relevant but does not address the immediate need for pain relief. Assisting the client to a comfortable position (choice C) is helpful but does not directly address the client's pain concern during the dressing change. Administering pain medication is the most direct and effective intervention to ensure optimal client comfort and compliance with necessary procedures.

3. Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?

• A. Knee picture
• B. Ankle picture
• C. Elbow picture
• D. Wrist picture

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.

4. A client who is postoperative is using an incentive spirometer. Into which of the following positions should the nurse place the client?

• A. Side-lying
• B. Supine
• C. Semi-Fowler’s
• D. Trendelenburg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct position for a postoperative client using an incentive spirometer is the Semi-Fowler’s position. Placing the client in Semi-Fowler’s or high-Fowler’s position maximizes lung expansion and the effectiveness of the incentive spirometer. Side-lying may not provide optimal lung expansion. The supine position is not ideal for postoperative clients using incentive spirometers as it may limit lung expansion. The Trendelenburg position is not recommended due to potential complications postoperatively.

5. A nurse is providing care to four clients. Which of the following situations requires the nurse to complete an incident report?

• A. A nurse tied a client's restraints straps to the moveable part of the bed frame.
• B. An assistive personnel placed a surgical mask on a client who has TB before transporting her to radiology.
• C. A nurse administered a medication to a client 30 minutes before the dose is due.
• D. A client who has an IV infusion pump receives an additional 250 mL of IV fluid.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. An incident report should be completed when a nurse administers medication to a client significantly earlier than the scheduled time. This deviation from the prescribed schedule could potentially impact the client's treatment plan and requires documentation for proper evaluation and follow-up. Choices A, B, and D do not necessarily require an incident report. Choice A involves improper restraint application, which is a safety issue but does not directly involve medication administration. Choice B involves a protective measure for a client with TB, which is within the scope of practice for assistive personnel. Choice D describes an increase in IV fluid administration, which may need monitoring but does not necessarily indicate a need for an incident report unless there are specific complications or adverse effects related to the additional fluid.

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