Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Pain level of 8/10
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F
• D. Saturated abdominal dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has had a stroke. Which intervention is most important to include in the client's plan of care to prevent joint contractures?

• A. Encourage the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises.
• B. Use pillows to keep the client's extremities in a functional position.
• C. Place the client in a prone position for 30 minutes each day.
• D. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Using pillows to keep the client's extremities in a functional position is crucial in preventing joint contractures. This intervention helps maintain proper alignment of the joints and reduces the risk of contractures by preventing prolonged positioning that can lead to muscle shortening. Encouraging the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises (Choice A) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not be the most important intervention to prevent joint contractures. Placing the client in a prone position for 30 minutes each day (Choice C) can be helpful for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing joint contractures. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected side (Choice D) can aid in maintaining joint flexibility but may not be as crucial as using pillows to prevent joint contractures.

4. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

• A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
• B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
• C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
• D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

5. A client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is being cared for by a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Immediately conduct a thorough assessment.
• B. Encourage visitors to distract the client.
• C. Provide a private room and limit stimulation.
• D. Speak softly to the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a client with amphetamine toxicity and sensory overload is to provide a private room and limit stimulation. This approach helps reduce external stimuli, which can exacerbate sensory overload, and creates a calming environment for the client. Encouraging visitors to distract the client may worsen sensory overload by adding more stimulation. Speaking softly, rather than at a higher volume, is more suitable to help maintain a calm environment. Therefore, the correct choice is to provide a private room and limit stimulation (option C) in this scenario.

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