Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

2. A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago but feels fine now. What action is best for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Record the coughing incident. No further action is required at this time.
• B. Stop the feeding, explain to the family why it is being stopped, and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. After clearing the tube with 30 ml of air, check the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube.
• D. Inject 30 ml of air into the tube while auscultating the epigastrium for gurgling.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a client experiences severe coughing following nasogastric tube feedings, it is crucial to verify proper tube placement. Checking the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube helps confirm the tube's correct positioning. Option A is incorrect because further action is necessary to ensure the client's safety. Option B is inappropriate as it suggests stopping the feeding without assessing the tube's placement. Option D is incorrect as injecting air into the tube may lead to further complications if the tube is not positioned correctly.

3. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?

• A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
• B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
• C. A notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner
• D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, when a client arrives unconscious, priority should be given to a notarized original copy of advance directives brought in by the partner. Advance directives are legal documents that specify a person's healthcare wishes and decision-making preferences in advance. These directives guide healthcare providers in delivering care according to the client's preferences when the client is unable to communicate. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) are important but do not provide specific care instructions. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) may not reflect the client's wishes. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are valuable but do not address the individualized care preferences of the client.

4. A client reports constipation, and a nurse is providing dietary teaching. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Macaroni and cheese
• B. One medium apple with skin
• C. One cup of plain yogurt
• D. Roast chicken and white rice

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: One medium apple with skin. Foods high in fiber, like apples with skin, are recommended to relieve constipation due to their fiber content, which aids in bowel regularity. Macaroni and cheese, yogurt, and roast chicken with white rice do not provide as much fiber and are less effective in alleviating constipation. While yogurt can sometimes contain probiotics that support gut health, it is not as effective in treating constipation as high-fiber foods like apples.

5. A healthcare professional is admitting a client who has influenza. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the healthcare professional initiate?

• A. Airborne
• B. Droplet
• C. Contact
• D. Protective environment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Droplet precautions should be initiated for clients with infections that spread via droplet nuclei larger than 5 microns in diameter, such as influenza, rubella, meningococcal pneumonia, and streptococcal pharyngitis. In the case of influenza, the virus is primarily spread through respiratory droplets produced when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that remain infectious over long distances, typically smaller than 5 microns, like tuberculosis. Contact precautions are for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact, and protective environment precautions are for immunocompromised individuals to protect them from environmental pathogens.

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