HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Nausea and vomiting
- D. Gingival hyperplasia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.
2. The nurse in the emergency department observes a colleague viewing the electronic health record (EHR) of a client who holds an elected position in the community. The client is not a part of the colleague's assignment. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Communicate the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse
- B. Send an email to facility administration reporting the action
- C. Write an anonymous complaint to a professional website
- D. Post a comment about the action on a staff discussion board
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Communicating the colleague's actions to the unit charge nurse is the most appropriate action to take in this scenario. Reporting to the charge nurse follows proper protocol and ensures privacy compliance. This option allows for addressing the issue internally within the healthcare setting, maintaining confidentiality, and following the chain of command. Sending an email to facility administration (Choice B) might be premature without internal investigation and could potentially bypass the immediate supervisor who is responsible for addressing such issues. Writing an anonymous complaint to a professional website (Choice C) and posting a comment about the action on a staff discussion board (Choice D) are not professional or effective ways to address the situation, as they do not ensure proper handling of the breach of privacy within the organization.
3. When should discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a diagnosis of stroke begin?
- A. At the time of admission
- B. The day before the patient is to be discharged
- C. When outpatient therapy is no longer needed
- D. As soon as the patient's discharge destination is known
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning for a patient admitted to the neurological unit with a stroke diagnosis should begin at the time of admission. Initiating discharge planning early allows for a comprehensive assessment of the patient's needs, enables better coordination of care, and ensures a smooth transition from the hospital to the next level of care. Option B is incorrect because waiting until the day before discharge does not provide enough time for adequate planning. Option C is incorrect because waiting until outpatient therapy is no longer needed delays the planning process. Option D is incorrect because waiting until the discharge destination is known may result in rushed planning and inadequate preparation for the patient's needs.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?
- A. Blood glucose level
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
- C. Serum potassium level
- D. Serum creatinine level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for knee-length anti-embolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the client’s stockings at least once during each shift
- B. Roll the top of the client’s stockings down to just below the knee
- C. Seat the client in a chair for 30 minutes prior to applying stockings
- D. Measure the length of the client’s leg from the heel to the gluteal fold
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to remove the client’s stockings at least once during each shift. This is important to inspect the skin and prevent complications such as pressure injuries or impaired circulation. Rolling the top of the stockings down can compromise their effectiveness in preventing blood clots. Seating the client in a chair prior to applying stockings is not directly related to the care of anti-embolic stockings. Measuring the length of the client’s leg from the heel to the gluteal fold is not necessary for the application or care of knee-length anti-embolic stockings.
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