Nursing Elites

1. In preparing a care plan for a client admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome, which nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Ineffective coping related to uncertainty of disease progression
• B. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to impaired swallowing reflex
• C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to ascending paralysis
• D. Impaired physical mobility related to asymmetrical descending paralysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ineffective breathing pattern is the highest priority nursing problem for a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome due to the potential risk of respiratory failure. As the paralysis ascends, it can affect the muscles needed for breathing, leading to respiratory compromise. Addressing this problem promptly is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and failure. Choices A, B, and D are also important nursing problems in Guillain-Barre syndrome, but ensuring effective breathing takes precedence over coping, nutrition, and mobility due to the immediate threat it poses to the client's life.

2. What information is most important for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia?

• A. Ensure the partner is screened for chlamydia
• B. Report any signs of liver dysfunction immediately
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice while on this medication
• D. Use two forms of contraception while taking this drug

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to provide to an adolescent female prescribed azithromycin for lower lobe pneumonia and recurrent chlamydia is to use two forms of contraception while taking this drug. Azithromycin can reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives, increasing the risk of pregnancy. It is crucial to convey this information to prevent unintended pregnancies. Option A is incorrect as the partner should be screened for chlamydia, not HIV, in this case. Option B is not the most important information to provide as liver dysfunction is a rare side effect of azithromycin. Option C is irrelevant as grapefruit juice does not interact with azithromycin. Therefore, the priority information to convey is the importance of using dual contraception to prevent pregnancy.

3. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
• B. Full volume of pedal pulse
• C. Reduced level of pain
• D. Improved visual activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.

4. Which action should the school nurse take first when conducting a screening for scoliosis?

• A. Compare dorsal trunk measurements
• B. Have the individual extend arms over the head for visualization
• C. Inspect for symmetrical shoulder height
• D. Observe weight-bearing on each leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inspecting for symmetrical shoulder height is a crucial initial step in screening for scoliosis. Asymmetry in shoulder height can indicate the presence of spinal curvature, which is a key indicator of scoliosis. This assessment is prioritized as it provides a visual clue to potential spinal abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are not the first steps in scoliosis screening. Choice A involves a more detailed measurement that is not the primary visual indicator for scoliosis; choice B is not a primary indicator of scoliosis but can be used for further examination, and choice D is not directly related to identifying spinal curvature.

5. Which client’s vital signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that the nurse should report to the healthcare provider?

• A. P 70, BP 120/60 mmHg; P 100, BP 90/60 mmHg; rapid respirations.
• B. P 55, BP 160/70 mmHg; P 50, BP 194/70 mmHg; irregular respirations.
• C. P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations.
• D. P 110, BP 130/70 mmHg; P 100, BP 110/70 mmHg; shallow respirations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. The vital signs presented (P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations) indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which can be a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention. Kussmaul respirations are deep and labored breathing patterns associated with metabolic acidosis and can be a late sign of increased ICP. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate vital sign patterns consistent with increased ICP. Choice A shows variations in blood pressure and pulse rate but does not provide a clear indication of increased ICP. Choice B displays fluctuations in blood pressure and pulse rate with irregular respirations, but these vital signs do not specifically suggest increased ICP. Choice D presents relatively stable vital signs with shallow respirations, which do not align with the typical vital signs seen in increased ICP.

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