Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?

• A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left on command
• B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area covering the right calf
• C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left
• D. Bilateral lower extremity has 3+ pitting edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant increase in the circumference of the right calf compared to the left calf is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Option A is incorrect as dorsiflexing the right foot and left on command does not specifically indicate DVT. Option B describes an ecchymosis area which is more indicative of a bruise rather than DVT. Option D suggests bilateral lower extremity edema, which is not specific to DVT and can be seen in various conditions such as heart failure or renal issues.

2. What instruction is most important for the nurse to provide a female client who has just been diagnosed with trichomoniasis?

• A. Avoid douching
• B. Treat sexual partner(s) concurrently
• C. Avoid using moist washcloths when bathing
• D. Postpone becoming pregnant until the infection is treated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important instruction for a female client diagnosed with trichomoniasis is to treat sexual partner(s) concurrently. This is crucial to prevent reinfection and the spread of the infection. Choice A, avoiding douching, is generally recommended for vaginal health but is not the most critical instruction in this case. Choice C, avoiding moist washcloths when bathing, is not directly related to the transmission or treatment of trichomoniasis. Choice D, postponing pregnancy until the infection is treated, is important but treating sexual partners concurrently takes precedence to prevent reinfection.

3. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

4. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a client who is receiving acyclovir (Zovirax) IV for the treatment of herpes zoster (shingles)?

• A. Initiate cardiac telemetry monitoring
• B. Maintain continuous pulse oximetry
• C. Perform capillary glucose measurements
• D. Monitor serum creatinine levels

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum creatinine levels. Acyclovir can potentially impact kidney function, making it essential to monitor serum creatinine levels to assess renal function. Option A, initiating cardiac telemetry monitoring, is not directly related to acyclovir administration for herpes zoster. Option B, maintaining continuous pulse oximetry, is more relevant in assessing respiratory status rather than monitoring for acyclovir-related side effects. Option C, performing capillary glucose measurements, is not directly associated with acyclovir therapy for herpes zoster.

5. A 20-year-old female client tells the nurse that her menstrual periods occur about every 28 days, and her breasts are quite tender when her menstrual flow is heavy. She also states that she performs her breast self-examination (BSE) on the first day of every month. What action should the nurse implement in response to the client's statements?

• A. Remind the client that it is also important to schedule an annual mammogram
• B. Refer the client to a nurse practitioner for an in-depth review of the BSE procedure
• C. Encourage the client to perform BSE 2 to 3 days after the menstrual period ends
• D. Instruct the client to continue with her regular monthly exams as she is doing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to encourage the client to perform breast self-examination (BSE) 2 to 3 days after her menstrual period ends. This timing is important because breasts are least tender during this phase of the menstrual cycle, allowing for a more effective examination. Choice A is incorrect because while scheduling an annual mammogram is important, the immediate concern is the timing of BSE. Choice B is incorrect as the client's BSE practice just needs a slight adjustment in timing, not an in-depth review. Choice D is incorrect as the client should perform BSE when her breasts are least tender for optimal detection of any abnormalities.

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