Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?

• A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left on command
• B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area covering the right calf
• C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left
• D. Bilateral lower extremity has 3+ pitting edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant increase in the circumference of the right calf compared to the left calf is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Option A is incorrect as dorsiflexing the right foot and left on command does not specifically indicate DVT. Option B describes an ecchymosis area which is more indicative of a bruise rather than DVT. Option D suggests bilateral lower extremity edema, which is not specific to DVT and can be seen in various conditions such as heart failure or renal issues.

2. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia who has been febrile for 24 hours. Which data is most important for the nurse to obtain in determining the client's fluid status?

• A. Daily intake and output
• B. Skin turgor
• C. Daily weight
• D. Vital signs every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Daily weight is the most important data for the nurse to obtain in determining the client's fluid status in this scenario. During febrile episodes, assessing daily weight is crucial as it can indicate fluid retention or loss. While monitoring intake and output is important for assessing fluid balance, daily weight provides a more comprehensive picture of fluid status over time. Skin turgor is more indicative of hydration status than overall fluid status, and vital signs, although essential, do not directly assess fluid status as effectively as daily weight.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with a new colostomy. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Change the ostomy appliance daily
• B. Empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full
• C. Rinse the ostomy pouch with warm water
• D. Apply a skin barrier to the peristomal skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include in the client's teaching plan is to empty the ostomy pouch when it is one-third full. This practice helps prevent leakage and skin irritation by maintaining an appropriate pouching system. Changing the ostomy appliance daily (Choice A) is not necessary unless leakage or other issues occur. Rinsing the ostomy pouch with warm water (Choice C) is not a recommended practice as it may cause damage to the pouch. Applying a skin barrier to the peristomal skin (Choice D) is important but not the most crucial instruction in this scenario.

5. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2°F and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity is a sign of dehydration in children. In the scenario provided, the child is experiencing increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting, indicating fluid loss and potential dehydration. Occult blood in the stool may suggest gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a direct indicator of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not specific to dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with increased bowel motility, not necessarily dehydration.

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