HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?
- A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left on command
- B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area covering the right calf
- C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left
- D. Bilateral lower extremity has 3+ pitting edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant increase in the circumference of the right calf compared to the left calf is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Option A is incorrect as dorsiflexing the right foot and left on command does not specifically indicate DVT. Option B describes an ecchymosis area which is more indicative of a bruise rather than DVT. Option D suggests bilateral lower extremity edema, which is not specific to DVT and can be seen in various conditions such as heart failure or renal issues.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling dizzy and has a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly
- B. Provide 15 grams of carbohydrate
- C. Check the client's blood pressure
- D. Notify the healthcare provider
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Providing 15 grams of carbohydrate is the initial action to treat hypoglycemia. When a client with diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as dizziness and with a blood glucose level of 50 mg/dl, the immediate priority is to raise their blood sugar levels quickly. Administering carbohydrates, such as fruit juice or glucose tablets, is the recommended first step to reverse hypoglycemia. Administering glucagon intramuscularly is usually reserved for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious or unable to swallow. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the primary intervention for hypoglycemia. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after the immediate management of hypoglycemia.
3. The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a client with a history of smoking and notes a barrel chest. Which action is most important for the nurse to take next?
- A. Assess the client's oxygen saturation level
- B. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing techniques
- C. Determine the client's history of lung disease
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas sample
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing the client's oxygen saturation level is crucial when a nurse identifies a barrel chest. A barrel chest is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which can lead to impaired gas exchange and decreased oxygen saturation. Monitoring the oxygen saturation level will provide immediate information on the client's respiratory status. Teaching pursed-lip breathing techniques, determining lung disease history, and obtaining arterial blood gas samples are important interventions but assessing oxygen saturation takes precedence in this scenario due to its direct impact on the client's respiratory function.
4. A 14-year-old girl with asthma complains of feeling nervous and jittery after a respiratory therapy bronchodilator treatment. What explanation is best for the nurse to provide to this adolescent?
- A. Nervousness should disappear when hypoxia is relieved after several bronchodilator treatments
- B. Tremors result from the rapid dilation of the bronchioles and an increased heart rate
- C. A fast heart rate and jitteriness are side effects of the bronchodilator treatment containing albuterol
- D. Excessive coughing, which causes tachypnea and anxiety, result from the use of bronchodilators
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a fast heart rate and jitteriness are common side effects of bronchodilators like albuterol. Choice A is incorrect as nervousness is more likely a side effect of the medication than solely related to hypoxia. Choice B is incorrect as it provides a partial explanation focusing only on tremors and heart rate, not mentioning jitteriness. Choice D is incorrect because excessive coughing and tachypnea are not typically associated with bronchodilator use; instead, they may indicate inadequate relief or other issues.
5. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is placed on drug therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). The client should be instructed to report which effect(s) of the medication to the healthcare provider?
- A. Reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids
- B. Bloody or blood-tinged urine
- C. Blurring of vision
- D. Weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a week
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin (Rifadin) commonly causes a reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect but should be reported to the healthcare provider for monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with rifampin therapy. Bloody or blood-tinged urine may indicate other issues such as urinary tract infection or kidney problems, blurring of vision may suggest eye problems, and significant weight gain could be related to various health conditions unrelated to rifampin.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access