which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis dvt in a clients right leg
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant increase in the circumference of the right calf compared to the left calf is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Option A is incorrect as dorsiflexing the right foot and left on command does not specifically indicate DVT. Option B describes an ecchymosis area which is more indicative of a bruise rather than DVT. Option D suggests bilateral lower extremity edema, which is not specific to DVT and can be seen in various conditions such as heart failure or renal issues.

2. A client with cirrhosis is taking lactulose (Cephulac). Which finding indicates that the lactulose is having the desired effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two to three soft bowel movements per day.' Lactulose is prescribed to produce soft, regular bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis. This helps in preventing hepatic encephalopathy. Option B is incorrect because increased serum ammonia levels would indicate that lactulose is not effectively reducing ammonia levels. Option C is incorrect because lactulose does not directly affect white blood cell counts. Option D is incorrect because soft, formed stools twice a day may not be frequent enough to effectively reduce ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis.

3. While assessing a client who is experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, the nurse observes periods of apnea. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a nurse observes periods of apnea in a client experiencing Cheyne-Stokes respirations, measuring the length of the apneic periods is essential. This action helps in determining the severity of Cheyne-Stokes respirations by providing valuable information about the duration of interrupted breathing cycles. Elevating the head of the client's bed (Choice A) may be beneficial in some respiratory conditions but is not the priority in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Auscultating the client's breath sounds (Choice B) is a general assessment and may not directly address the issue of apnea in Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Suctioning the client's oropharynx (Choice D) is not the initial intervention for managing Cheyne-Stokes respirations unless secretions are obstructing the airway.

4. A postoperative client returns to the nursing unit following a ureter lithotomy via a flank incision. Which potential nursing problem has the highest priority when planning nursing care for this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Ineffective airway clearance.' Following a ureter lithotomy via a flank incision, the highest priority nursing problem is ensuring the client's airway remains clear. This is crucial for effective breathing and oxygenation. Altered nutrition, fluid volume excess, and activity intolerance are important to address but are of lower priority compared to maintaining a clear airway postoperatively.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/min and a heart rate of 110 beats/min. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to assess the client's oxygen saturation level. In a client with COPD and abnormal respiratory and heart rates, determining the oxygen saturation helps evaluate the adequacy of oxygen exchange and the severity of respiratory distress. Administering a bronchodilator (choice A) can be appropriate but assessing oxygen saturation takes priority. Encouraging deep breathing and coughing (choice B) may not address the immediate need for oxygenation assessment. Obtaining an arterial blood gas (choice D) is important but typically follows the initial assessment of oxygen saturation.

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