HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. Which assessment finding is most indicative of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client's right leg?
- A. Dorsiflexes the right foot and left on command
- B. A 3 by 5 cm ecchymosis area covering the right calf
- C. Right calf is 3 cm larger in circumference than the left
- D. Bilateral lower extremity has 3+ pitting edema
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a significant increase in the circumference of the right calf compared to the left calf is a classic sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Option A is incorrect as dorsiflexing the right foot and left on command does not specifically indicate DVT. Option B describes an ecchymosis area which is more indicative of a bruise rather than DVT. Option D suggests bilateral lower extremity edema, which is not specific to DVT and can be seen in various conditions such as heart failure or renal issues.
2. The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving radiation therapy for breast cancer. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include?
- A. Encourage the client to use sunscreen
- B. Apply lotion to the radiated area
- C. Keep the area dry and clean
- D. Encourage the client to exercise the arm
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the radiated area dry and clean is crucial to prevent skin irritation and infection. Radiation therapy can cause skin changes, making it susceptible to irritation and infection. Using sunscreen (Choice A) is not usually recommended on the radiated area as it can further irritate the skin. Applying lotion (Choice B) may not be suitable as it can trap moisture and cause skin breakdown. While encouraging exercise (Choice D) is important, keeping the area dry and clean takes precedence to prevent complications during radiation therapy.
3. The husband and adult children of a woman who abuses alcohol ask the nurse what approach to use when her drinking behavior disrupts family plans. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Destroy any hidden supplies of alcohol she has at home so she has to stay sober
- B. When she drinks, communicate how disruptive her behaviors are and the burden they inflict on the family
- C. Make her responsible for the consequences of her drinking behaviors
- D. Include her in family activities whether she is drinking or sober
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The best approach for the nurse to suggest is to make the woman responsible for the consequences of her drinking behaviors. By holding her accountable, she is more likely to recognize the impact of her actions and potentially initiate change. Destroying hidden alcohol supplies (Choice A) might lead to conflict and further secretive behavior. Simply communicating the disruptions caused by her drinking (Choice B) may not effectively address the issue. Including her in family activities regardless of her drinking status (Choice D) could enable the behavior and not address the underlying problem.
4. A client who is taking ciprofloxacin (Cipro) reports to the nurse of having a loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Reassure the client that these are common side effects of ciprofloxacin.
- B. Instruct the client to take ciprofloxacin with food.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms.
- D. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client on ciprofloxacin reports loss of appetite and a metallic taste in the mouth is to notify the healthcare provider of the client's symptoms. These symptoms could indicate a need for a change in medication or additional treatment, which the healthcare provider would need to assess. Instructing the client to take ciprofloxacin with food (choice B) may help with gastrointestinal upset but will not address the reported symptoms. Reassuring the client (choice A) is important for providing emotional support but does not address the need for further evaluation. Encouraging increased fluid intake (choice D) is generally beneficial but may not directly address the specific side effects reported.
5. A 17-year-old female is seen in the school clinic for an evaluation of abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. The client's last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination
- B. Notify the parents that the client needs to be picked up from school
- C. Determine the date of the client's last menstrual period
- D. Ask the client to lie down for a pelvic examination
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first is to refer the client to a healthcare provider for a pelvic examination. This is important to rule out serious conditions that may be causing the abdominal pain and dysmenorrhea. While notifying the parents, determining the date of the client's last menstrual period, and asking the client to lie down for a pelvic examination could be necessary steps, the priority is to ensure a proper evaluation by a healthcare provider to address the client's presenting symptoms effectively.
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