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1. A male client with hypercholesterolemia wants to change his diet to help reduce his cholesterol levels. Which breakfast items should the nurse encourage the client to eat? (Select all that apply)
- A. Sausage patties and eggs
- B. Whole wheat toast and jam
- C. Bagels and cream cheese
- D. Blackberries and oatmeal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct choices are whole wheat toast and jam (B) and blackberries and oatmeal (D). Whole wheat toast and blackberries are high in fiber, which can help lower cholesterol levels. Sausage patties and eggs (A) are high in saturated fats that can raise cholesterol levels. Bagels and cream cheese (C) are not as beneficial for cholesterol control compared to high-fiber options like whole wheat toast and blackberries.
2. While flushing the proximal port of a triple lumen central venous catheter with heparin solution, the nurse meets resistance. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Remove the cap and apply direct gentle pressure with the syringe
- B. Contact the healthcare provider regarding the need for a chest x-ray
- C. Cover the cap with tape and label the port as being obstructed
- D. Remove the catheter while applying gentle pressure at the insertion site
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When encountering resistance while flushing a central venous catheter, it is crucial to contact the healthcare provider regarding the need for a chest x-ray. This resistance may indicate a blockage within the catheter, a kink, or other issues that could compromise the integrity of the catheter or pose a risk to the patient. It is essential to assess the situation through imaging to determine the appropriate course of action. Option A is incorrect because applying direct pressure could cause damage to the catheter or dislodge any potential blockage. Option C is incorrect as labeling the port as obstructed without further assessment may delay necessary interventions. Option D is incorrect as removing the catheter without proper evaluation can lead to complications and should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider.
3. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?
- A. Moist mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased skin turgor
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.
4. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
- B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
- C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
- D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.
5. During the administration of albuterol per nebulizer, the client complains of shakiness. The client’s vital signs are heart rate 120 beats/minute, respirations 20 breaths/minute, blood pressure 140/80. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer an anxiolytic
- B. Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram
- C. Stop the albuterol administration and restart in 30 minutes
- D. Educate the client about the side effects of albuterol
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Shakiness is a known side effect of albuterol, which can often be managed without the need for additional medications. Educating the client about the potential side effects of albuterol, including shakiness, helps them understand what to expect and how to manage these effects. Administering an anxiolytic (Choice A) is not indicated as shakiness related to albuterol is not a sign of anxiety. Obtaining a 12-lead electrocardiogram (Choice B) is not necessary based on the client's presentation of shakiness and vital signs. Stopping the albuterol administration and restarting in 30 minutes (Choice C) may not be necessary since shakiness is a common side effect that can often be managed without interrupting the treatment.
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