Nursing Elites

1. A male client with hypercholesterolemia wants to change his diet to help reduce his cholesterol levels. Which breakfast items should the nurse encourage the client to eat? (Select all that apply)

• A. Sausage patties and eggs
• B. Whole wheat toast and jam
• C. Bagels and cream cheese
• D. Blackberries and oatmeal

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct choices are whole wheat toast and jam (B) and blackberries and oatmeal (D). Whole wheat toast and blackberries are high in fiber, which can help lower cholesterol levels. Sausage patties and eggs (A) are high in saturated fats that can raise cholesterol levels. Bagels and cream cheese (C) are not as beneficial for cholesterol control compared to high-fiber options like whole wheat toast and blackberries.

2. After completion of mandatory counseling, the impaired nurse has asked nursing administration to allow return to work. When the nurse administrator approaches the charge nurse with the impaired nurse’s request, what action is best for the charge nurse to take?

• A. Ask to meet with the impaired nurse’s therapist before allowing the nurse back on the unit
• B. Meet with staff to assess their feelings about the impaired nurse’s return to the unit
• C. Since treatment is completed, assign the nurse to routine RN responsibilities
• D. Allow the impaired nurse to return to work and monitor medication administration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Allowing the impaired nurse to return to work with monitoring is the best course of action in this scenario. By monitoring the impaired nurse's medication administration, the charge nurse can ensure safe practice while supporting the nurse's reintegration into the work environment. Meeting with the therapist (Choice A) is not within the charge nurse's scope of responsibility and may violate the impaired nurse's privacy. Assessing staff feelings (Choice B) is important but should be done by leadership, not the charge nurse. Simply assigning routine duties (Choice C) may not address the need for monitoring and support required in this situation.

3. Which techniques should be used to administer an intradermal (ID) injection for a Mantoux test to screen for tuberculosis (TB)? Select all that apply.

• A. Observe for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected
• B. Select an ID site using the volar surface of the forearm
• C. Use a 26 or 27-gauge needle with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches on a 1 ml calibrated syringe
• D. Ensure that the needle is inserted into the skin with the bevel up

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing for an intradermal bleed after the antigen is injected is a proper technique for an ID injection. This is important to confirm the correct placement of the injection. Choice B is correct because the recommended site for an ID injection for a Mantoux test is the volar surface of the forearm. Choice C is incorrect because the standard needle size for an ID injection is usually 26 or 27 gauge with a length of 1/4 to 5/8 inches, not 25 gauge with a length of 1/2 inch. Choice D is incorrect because the needle should be inserted into the skin with the bevel facing up, not down.

4. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

5. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

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