Nursing Elites

1. A newborn whose mother is HIV positive is admitted to the nursery from labor and delivery. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Initiate treatment with zidovudine (ZDV) syrup at 2 mg per kg
• B. Bathe the infant with dilute chlorhexidine (Hibiclens) or soap
• C. Measure and record the infant's frontal-occipital circumference
• D. Administer vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON) IM in the vastus lateralis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a newborn potentially exposed to HIV is to bathe the infant with dilute chlorhexidine or soap. This helps reduce the risk of infection. Initiating treatment with zidovudine would be important but not the first priority. Measuring and recording the infant's frontal-occipital circumference and administering vitamin K are important tasks but are not the priority when dealing with potential HIV exposure. Immediate hygiene measures are crucial to minimize the risk of transmission.

2. The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?

• A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
• B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
• C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
• D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.

3. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?

• A. Right lower abdominal pain
• B. Confusion
• C. Depression
• D. Peripheral neuropathy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke’s syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke’s syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.

4. A 46-year-old male client who had a myocardial infarction 24 hours ago comes to the nurse’s station fully dressed and wanting to go home. He tells the nurse that he is feeling much better at this time. Based on this behavior, which nursing problem should the nurse formulate?

• A. Anxiety related to treatment plan
• B. Deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes
• C. Ineffective coping related to denial
• D. Decisional conflict due to stress

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Ineffective coping related to denial.' The client's behavior of wanting to go home and feeling much better shortly after a myocardial infarction indicates denial of the severity of his condition. This denial can lead to ineffective coping mechanisms, hindering his recovery and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's behavior is not primarily driven by anxiety about the treatment plan, deficient knowledge of lifestyle changes, or decisional conflict due to stress, but rather by denial and ineffective coping mechanisms.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes lidocaine (Lidoject-1) 100 mg IV push for ventricular tachycardia for an unconscious client. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Measure the client's cardiac output
• B. Assess neurological status q15 min
• C. Collect a blood specimen for serum potassium
• D. Infuse lidocaine (Lidoject-1) at 20 to 50 mg/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for the nurse is to assess the client's neurological status q15 min. This is crucial to monitor for potential side effects of lidocaine, especially its neurotoxic effects. While measuring the client's cardiac output and collecting a blood specimen for serum potassium are important assessments, assessing the neurological status is the priority when administering lidocaine. Infusing lidocaine at a specific rate should follow the initial assessment of the client's neurological status to ensure safety.

Similar Questions