Nursing Elites

1. As a community organizer, the PHN facilitates the planning and implementation of program subjects in the community. In the light of the PHC approach, these programs/projects should be characterized by the following except:

• A. managed by the community leaders/members
• B. managed by non-government organizations for the people to ensure success
• C. compatible with available resources
• D. developmental in nature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of the PHC approach, programs should be characterized by being managed by community leaders/members (Choice A). This ensures community involvement and ownership. Programs should also be compatible with available resources (Choice C) to be sustainable and effective. Additionally, programs should be developmental in nature (Choice D), focusing on long-term improvements. Choice B is incorrect because programs should not be solely managed by non-government organizations; instead, they should be driven by the community to promote sustainability and empowerment.

2. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?

• A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
• B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
• C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
• D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.

3. A public health nurse is working with a community to develop a disaster response plan. Which of the following is the priority action?

• A. Identifying available resources and services
• B. Conducting disaster drills
• C. Educating the community about disaster preparedness
• D. Developing a communication plan

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Identifying available resources and services is the priority action when developing a disaster response plan. This step is crucial as it helps the community understand what resources and services are already in place and what additional support may be needed during a disaster. Conducting disaster drills, educating the community about disaster preparedness, and developing a communication plan are important steps in disaster preparedness but come after identifying available resources and services. Without knowing the available resources, it would be challenging to effectively plan and respond to a disaster.

4. All of the following are objectives of FHSIS EXCEPT:

• A. To complete the clinical picture of chronic diseases and describe their natural history
• B. To provide a standardized, facility-level database that can be accessed for more in-depth studies
• C. To minimize recording and reporting burden, allowing more time for patient care and promotive activities
• D. To ensure that data reported are useful and accurate and are disseminated in a timely and easy-to-use fashion

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Completing the clinical picture of chronic diseases and describing their natural history is not an objective of FHSIS. The objectives of FHSIS include providing a standardized, facility-level database for more in-depth studies (B), minimizing recording and reporting burden to allow more time for patient care and promotive activities (C), and ensuring that reported data are useful, accurate, and disseminated in a timely and easy-to-use manner (D). Therefore, A is the exception among the listed objectives.

5. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

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