Nursing Elites

1. You are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient. The patient has the Moro reflex. How should you interpret this neurological assessment finding?

• A. It is normal among adolescents.
• B. It indicates that the patient has an intact peripheral nervous system.
• C. It indicates that the patient has an intact central nervous system.
• D. It is not a normal finding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is typically present in infants up to around 4-6 months of age and is characterized by the infant's response to a sudden loss of support or loud noise. It is not a normal finding in adolescents or older individuals. Therefore, if an adolescent patient exhibits the Moro reflex during a neurological assessment, it is considered abnormal and warrants further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Moro reflex is not expected or normal among adolescents and does not specifically indicate the status of either the peripheral or central nervous system in this age group.

2. Which of the following is true regarding the Affordable Care Act?

• A. The Affordable Care Act addressed issues of interest to nursing without controversy.
• B. The Affordable Care Act addressed issues of mandatory overtime, incivility, and high workloads for nurses.
• C. The Affordable Care Act provided a new patient-centered model for health care.
• D. The Affordable Care Act attempted to address many of the issues of interest to nursing, but came with much controversy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The Affordable Care Act attempted to address many issues relevant to nursing, such as mandatory overtime, incivility, and high workloads, but it faced significant controversy. Choice A is incorrect as the act did not address nursing issues without controversy. Choice B is incorrect as it inaccurately lists the issues the act addressed. Choice C is incorrect as it does not fully capture the controversy surrounding the Affordable Care Act.

3. Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?

• A. Crohn's disease primarily affects the left colon and rectum, while ulcerative colitis most often affects the right colon and distal ileum.
• B. Crohn's disease presents with shallow ulcerations, whereas ulcerative colitis presents with a cobblestone appearance of the mucosal lining.
• C. The extent of involvement is noncontiguous and segmented with Crohn's disease, whereas it is contiguous and diffuse with ulcerative colitis.
• D. Crohn's disease has primarily mucosal involvement, whereas it is transmural with ulcerative colitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.

4. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic.

• A. The initial stage of shock: Hyperventilation occurs and the blood pH rises.
• B. The compensatory stage of shock: Hypoxia occurs and lactic acid rises.
• C. The progressive stage of shock: Histamine is released; fluid and proteins leak into surrounding tissues and the blood thickens.
• D. The refractory stage of shock: Potassium ions leak out; sodium ions build up, and metabolic acidosis increases.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The progressive stage of shock is accurately described as the stage where histamine is released, leading to fluid and proteins leaking into surrounding tissues and the blood thickening. In this stage, the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, resulting in a cascade of events that worsen the shock state. Choice A is incorrect as hyperventilation and a rise in blood pH are more characteristic of the compensatory stage. Choice B is incorrect as hypoxia and a rise in lactic acid are more typical of the progressive stage. Choice D is incorrect as the described electrolyte imbalances and metabolic acidosis are more aligned with the refractory stage of shock.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is unconscious and whose partner is their health care surrogate. The partner wishes to discontinue the client's feeding tube, but another family member tells the nurse that they want the client to continue receiving treatment. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. You should contact the provider about your wishes for your family member.
• B. We'll need to have the nursing supervisor review the client's advance directives.
• C. You should speak with the facility's ethics committee about your concerns.
• D. As the health care surrogate, the client's partner can make this decision.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D because the health care surrogate, as designated by the client, has the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the client when they are unable to do so. This authority includes decisions about treatment continuation or withdrawal. Option A is incorrect as the family member's wishes do not override the legal authority of the health care surrogate. Option B is not the most appropriate action in this situation as the advance directives are already clear by the designation of a health care surrogate. Option C is not necessary at this stage since the health care surrogate can make the decision without involving the ethics committee.

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