HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. A patient's serum potassium level is 2.2 mEq/L. Which nursing action is the highest priority for this patient?
- A. Start oxygen at 2 L/min
- B. Initiate cardiac monitoring
- C. Initiate seizure precautions
- D. Keep the patient on bed rest
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate cardiac monitoring. Severe hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making cardiac monitoring the priority to detect and manage any cardiac complications. Starting oxygen, seizure precautions, or bed rest are not the immediate priority actions for severe hypokalemia.
2. Low birth weight is defined as a newborn's weight of:
- A. 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
- B. 1500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age.
- C. 2500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
- D. 1500 grams or less at birth, according to gestational age.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Low birth weight is defined as 2500 grams or less at birth, regardless of gestational age. This means that any newborn weighing 2500 grams or less is considered to have a low birth weight, irrespective of how many weeks they were in the womb. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they specify a weight of 1500 grams or less, which is not the standard definition of low birth weight. The correct definition is 2500 grams or less, not influenced by gestational age.
3. Which anatomic malformations are associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
- B. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and left ventricular outflow
- C. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, pulmonary atresia, and right ventricular outflow
- D. A sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot is characterized by a combination of four heart defects: a sub-aortic septal defect, an overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and right ventricular outflow obstruction. This leads to mixing of oxygen-poor and oxygen-rich blood, resulting in cyanosis. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not accurately describe the specific combination of anatomic malformations seen in Tetralogy of Fallot.
4. Wilms' tumor is a form of:
- A. Renal cancer.
- B. Liver cancer.
- C. Basal cell carcinoma.
- D. Brain cancer.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Wilms' tumor is a type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. The correct answer is A: Renal cancer. This tumor originates in the kidneys and is most commonly found in children, with the peak incidence around 3-4 years of age. Choice B, Liver cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor specifically involves the kidneys, not the liver. Choice C, Basal cell carcinoma, is a form of skin cancer, not related to Wilms' tumor. Choice D, Brain cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor is not associated with the brain but rather with the kidneys.
5. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?
- A. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block
- B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block
- C. First-degree atrioventricular heart block
- D. Complete heart block
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.
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