Nursing Elites

1. A patient's serum potassium level is 2.2 mEq/L. Which nursing action is the highest priority for this patient?

• A. Start oxygen at 2 L/min
• B. Initiate cardiac monitoring
• C. Initiate seizure precautions
• D. Keep the patient on bed rest

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate cardiac monitoring. Severe hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making cardiac monitoring the priority to detect and manage any cardiac complications. Starting oxygen, seizure precautions, or bed rest are not the immediate priority actions for severe hypokalemia.

2. In developing a disaster management plan for a hospital, which resource should be the highest priority to have available in response to a bioterrorism event?

• A. A mental health specialist on the response team
• B. A sufficient supply of PPE
• C. A system for tracking client information
• D. A network for communication between staff members and families

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a bioterrorism event, the highest priority resource to have available is a sufficient supply of personal protective equipment (PPE). PPE is crucial in protecting healthcare workers and other responders from exposure to biological agents. While mental health support, client information tracking systems, and communication networks are important components of disaster management, in the context of a bioterrorism event, ensuring the safety of staff through adequate PPE takes precedence over other resources.

3. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.

• A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
• B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
• C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
• D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.

4. Which individual is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease?

• A. An elderly female who is hospitalized with a hip fracture and on bed rest
• B. A middle-aged male patient who has been exposed to asbestos in the shipping industry
• C. An adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team
• D. An infant of low birth weight and a gestational age of 28 weeks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Osgood-Schlatter disease is a condition that commonly affects adolescents who are physically active, especially during growth spurts. It is caused by overuse of the knee, leading to inflammation of the patellar ligament at the tibial tuberosity. The repetitive stress on the growth plate during activities like running and jumping can trigger this condition. Therefore, an adolescent who is physically active and the captain of their soccer team is most at risk for Osgood-Schlatter disease. Choices A, B, and D are not at high risk for this condition as it is primarily seen in active adolescents.

5. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

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