HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. What is the significance of patient advocacy in nursing?
- A. Prioritizing the needs of the healthcare team over the patient
- B. Ensuring that patients' rights and preferences are respected
- C. Limiting patient autonomy
- D. Focusing solely on clinical procedures
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Patient advocacy in nursing entails ensuring that patients' rights and preferences are respected. This involves advocating for the patients' best interests, supporting informed decision-making, and safeguarding their autonomy. Choice A is incorrect because patient advocacy focuses on the patient's needs, not the healthcare team's. Choice C is incorrect as patient advocacy aims to empower patients and enhance their autonomy rather than limiting it. Choice D is incorrect since patient advocacy goes beyond clinical procedures to encompass holistic care that addresses the patients' preferences and rights.
2. Ben injects his insulin as prescribed, but then gets busy and forgets to eat. What will the best assessment of the nurse reveal?
- A. The client will be very thirsty.
- B. The client will complain of nausea.
- C. The client will need to urinate.
- D. The client will have moist skin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In this scenario, since Ben took his insulin but forgot to eat, he is at risk of developing hypoglycemia. Moist skin is a sign of hypoglycemia, which can occur when blood sugar levels drop too low. Thirstiness (choice A) is more commonly associated with hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels). Nausea (choice B) and frequent urination (choice C) are not typical immediate signs of hypoglycemia caused by missing a meal after insulin administration.
3. Select the type of skeletal fracture that is correctly paired with its description.
- A. A complete fracture: The fractured bone penetrates through the skin to the skin surface.
- B. A pathological fracture: A fracture that results from some physical trauma.
- C. A greenstick fracture: This bends but does not fracture the bone.
- D. An avulsion fracture: A fracture that pulls a part of the bone from the tendon or ligament
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An avulsion fracture occurs when a part of the bone is pulled away by a tendon or ligament. Choice A is incorrect because it describes an open fracture where the bone penetrates the skin. Choice B is incorrect as a pathological fracture results from an underlying disease weakening the bone, not physical trauma. Choice C is incorrect as a greenstick fracture involves the bone bending but not completely breaking.
4. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?
- A. Stage I
- B. Stage II
- C. Stage III
- D. Stage VI
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.
5. A nurse working in the emergency department is assessing several clients. Which of the following clients is the highest priority?
- A. A client who reports right-sided flank pain and is diaphoretic
- B. A client who has active bleeding from a puncture wound of the left groin area
- C. A client who has a raised red skin rash on his arms, neck, and face
- D. A client who reports shortness of breath and left neck and shoulder pain
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because shortness of breath with referred pain may indicate a serious condition, such as a cardiac event or pulmonary embolism, making this the highest priority. Option A, flank pain with diaphoresis, could suggest kidney-related issues but is not as immediately life-threatening as compromised breathing. Option B, active bleeding, though serious, can usually be controlled with proper interventions. Option C, a raised red skin rash, may indicate an allergic reaction but is not as urgent as respiratory distress with neck and shoulder pain.
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