Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is unconscious and whose partner is their health care surrogate. The partner wishes to discontinue the client's feeding tube, but another family member tells the nurse that they want the client to continue receiving treatment. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. You should contact the provider about your wishes for your family member.
• B. We'll need to have the nursing supervisor review the client's advance directives.
• C. You should speak with the facility's ethics committee about your concerns.
• D. As the health care surrogate, the client's partner can make this decision.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is D because the health care surrogate, as designated by the client, has the legal authority to make healthcare decisions on behalf of the client when they are unable to do so. This authority includes decisions about treatment continuation or withdrawal. Option A is incorrect as the family member's wishes do not override the legal authority of the health care surrogate. Option B is not the most appropriate action in this situation as the advance directives are already clear by the designation of a health care surrogate. Option C is not necessary at this stage since the health care surrogate can make the decision without involving the ethics committee.

2. What percentage of term newborns have a congenital heart disease due to environmental risk factors such as maternal alcoholism or drug ingestion?

• A. 2% to 4%
• B. 10% to 20%
• C. 5% to 10%
• D. 7% to 9%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2% to 4%. According to research, 2% to 4% of term newborns have congenital heart disease due to environmental risk factors such as maternal alcoholism or drug ingestion. Choices B, C, and D provide percentages that are higher than the actual prevalence of congenital heart disease in newborns caused by environmental factors, making them incorrect.

3. When developing an educational program for staff regarding a new intravenous pump, what is the correct sequence of actions for a nurse to take?

• A. Develop learning objectives for the program
• B. Identify what skills to teach the staff members
• C. Conduct program evaluation with staff members
• D. Schedule several sessions of the program

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence of actions when developing an educational program for staff regarding a new intravenous pump is to first identify what skills to teach the staff members. This step is essential as it sets the foundation for the learning objectives to be developed next. Once the learning objectives are established, scheduling several sessions of the program can be planned accordingly. Finally, after the program has been conducted, program evaluation with staff members should take place to assess the effectiveness of the educational program. Therefore, options A, C, and D are out of sequence, making them incorrect choices.

4. Your client is adversely affected with fever, night sweats, occult hematuria, tenderness of the spleen, and Osler's nodes. What disorder would you most likely suspect?

• A. Tuberculosis
• B. AIDS/HIV
• C. Pericarditis
• D. Endocarditis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is likely suffering from endocarditis based on the symptoms described. Endocarditis is characterized by fever, night sweats, hematuria, splenomegaly (tenderness of the spleen), and Osler's nodes (painful nodules on the pads of the fingers or toes). While tuberculosis and AIDS/HIV can present with some similar symptoms, the presence of Osler's nodes is more specific to endocarditis. Pericarditis typically presents with chest pain, not the combination of symptoms seen in this case.

5. The doctor has ordered 20 cc per hour of normal saline intravenously for your pediatric patient. You will be using pediatric intravenous tubing that delivers 60 cc per drop. How many drops per minute will you administer using this pediatric intravenous set?

• A. 30 drops per minute
• B. 25 drops per minute
• C. 20 drops per minute
• D. 22 drops per minute

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute, first convert the ordered amount to drops per minute. 20 cc per hour equals 20 drops per hour with 60 cc per drop tubing, which is equivalent to 20 drops per hour * 60 cc per drop = 1200 drops per hour. To find drops per minute, divide 1200 by 60 (minutes in an hour), which equals 20 drops per minute. Therefore, the correct answer is 20 drops per minute. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

Similar Questions