Nursing Elites

1. To be an effective educator, you should:

• A. listen to people's problems and decide on the approach to meet their needs
• B. select the best strategy for health action for people to implement
• C. direct people's efforts to implement community-based projects
• D. simply tell your clients what to do for their problems/needs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to select the best strategy for health action for people to implement because it empowers the community to take ownership of their health. Listening to people's problems (Choice A) is important, but the effectiveness lies in empowering them to implement solutions. Directing people's efforts (Choice C) can be directive and may not foster community ownership. Just telling clients what to do (Choice D) does not promote active participation and empowerment.

2. During the beginning shift assessment of a client with asthma who is receiving oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute, the nurse would be most concerned about which unreported finding?

• A. Pulse oximetry reading of 89%
• B. Crackles at the base of the lungs on auscultation
• C. Rapid shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes
• D. Excessive thirst with a dry cracked tongue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rapid, shallow respirations with intermittent wheezes are concerning as they indicate a potential worsening of the client's asthma. This finding suggests airway narrowing, which can lead to respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is required to address this respiratory distress. A pulse oximetry reading of 89% is low and indicates hypoxemia, but the respiratory pattern described in option C takes priority as it directly reflects the client's respiratory status. Crackles at the base of the lungs suggest fluid accumulation, which is important but not as immediately critical as the respiratory distress in asthma. Excessive thirst and a dry cracked tongue may indicate dehydration, which is relevant but not as urgent as the respiratory compromise presented in option C.

3. What is the primary function of a public health nurse?

• A. Provide bedside care
• B. Administer medications
• C. Promote and protect the health of populations
• D. Perform surgical procedures

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary function of a public health nurse is to promote and protect the health of populations. Public health nurses focus on preventing diseases, promoting healthy behaviors, and addressing health disparities within communities. Providing bedside care (choice A) is typically done by nurses in clinical settings, not public health nurses. Administering medications (choice B) is part of nursing practice but not the primary role of a public health nurse. Performing surgical procedures (choice D) is usually the responsibility of surgical nurses or healthcare providers specializing in surgery, not public health nurses.

4. The nurse manager has a nurse employee who is suspected of having a problem with chemical dependency. Which intervention would be the best approach by the nurse manager?

• A. Confront the nurse about the suspicions in a private meeting
• B. Schedule a staff conference, without the nurse present
• C. Consult the human resources department about the issue and needed actions
• D. Counsel the employee to resign to avoid investigation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Consulting with human resources is the best approach in this situation. It ensures that the issue is handled according to the organization's policies and that the nurse receives the appropriate support and intervention needed for chemical dependency. Confronting the nurse directly may lead to defensiveness and hinder a constructive resolution. Scheduling a staff conference without the nurse present can create unnecessary speculation and violate the employee's privacy. Counseling the employee to resign is not appropriate and does not address the underlying problem of chemical dependency.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypercalcemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can lead to hyperkalemia as a side effect. ACE inhibitors can cause potassium retention by inhibiting aldosterone secretion, which may result in elevated potassium levels. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypercalcemia (choice C) is also not a common side effect of enalapril. Hypokalemia (choice D) is the opposite of what is expected with enalapril, as it tends to cause potassium retention.

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