NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram
1. An infant weighed 7 pounds 8 ounces at birth. If growth occurs at a normal rate, what would be the expected weight at 6 months of age?
- A. Double the birth weight
- B. Triple the birth weight
- C. Gain 6 ounces each week
- D. Add 2 pounds each month
Correct answer: Double the birth weight
Rationale: Infants typically double their birth weight by 6 months of age as part of normal growth and development. This doubling of weight is a common milestone used by healthcare providers to assess a baby's growth progress. Tripling the birth weight or adding 2 pounds each month would result in excessive weight gain, which is not typical or healthy for an infant. Similarly, gaining 6 ounces each week would also lead to rapid and abnormal weight gain, making it an incorrect choice.
2. The nurse is caring for a 27-year-old female client with a venous stasis ulcer. Which nursing intervention would be most effective in promoting healing?
- A. Apply dressing using sterile technique
- B. Improve the client’s nutrition status
- C. Initiate limb compression therapy
- D. Begin proteolytic debridement
Correct answer: Improve the client’s nutrition status
Rationale: Venous stasis occurs when venous blood collects and stagnates in the lower leg due to incompetent venous valves. This leads to inadequate oxygen and nutrient supply to the cells in the lower extremities, resulting in cell death or necrosis. Venous stasis ulcers, characterized by shallow brown wounds with irregular margins, typically develop on the lower leg or ankle. The primary goal in managing clients with venous stasis ulcers is to promote healing. Proper nutrition plays a crucial role in wound healing. Nutritional deficiencies are common causes of venous ulcers, and a diet rich in protein, iron, zinc, and vitamins C and A is recommended to enhance wound healing. Applying dressings with sterile technique, initiating limb compression therapy, and beginning proteolytic debridement are important interventions in wound care but may not directly address the underlying issue of poor nutrition that is essential for healing venous stasis ulcers.
3. Which pathologic condition is described as 'increased intraocular pressure of the eye'?
- A. Detached Retina
- B. Fovea Centralis
- C. Presbyopia
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: D: Glaucoma
Rationale: The correct answer is Glaucoma. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure in the eye, which can lead to optic nerve damage, vision loss, and blindness if left untreated. Detached Retina (A), Fovea Centralis (B), and Presbyopia (C) are not conditions associated with increased intraocular pressure like Glaucoma. Detached Retina is a separation of the retina from its underlying tissue, Fovea Centralis is a part of the retina responsible for sharp central vision, and Presbyopia is an age-related condition affecting near vision due to the loss of flexibility in the eye's lens.
4. Which of the following complaints is characteristic of a patient with Bell's Palsy?
- A. Paralysis of the right or left arm
- B. Malfunction of a certain cranial nerve
- C. A sub-condition of Cerebral Palsy
- D. A side effect of a stroke
Correct answer: Malfunction of a certain cranial nerve
Rationale: Bell's Palsy is characterized by the dysfunction of the Facial nerve, which is cranial nerve VII. This dysfunction leads to facial muscle weakness or paralysis, not affecting the arms. Choice A is incorrect as Bell's Palsy specifically involves facial muscles, not the arms. Choice C is incorrect as it incorrectly associates Bell's Palsy with a different condition, Cerebral Palsy. Choice D is incorrect as Bell's Palsy is not a side effect of a stroke but rather a distinct condition with its own etiology.
5. A client is admitted for a head injury. His body is lying in an abnormal position and the physician states he is exhibiting decorticate posturing. Based on this assessment, the nurse can expect to find the client with:
- A. The legs extended and rotated internally; the elbow, wrists, and fingers flexed
- B. The legs pulled toward the chest; the head bent back at a 30-degree angle
- C. The back arched; the arms and legs extended and rigid
- D. The legs extended and rotated externally; the head turned to the right or the left
Correct answer: The legs extended and rotated internally; the elbow, wrists, and fingers flexed
Rationale: Decorticate posturing is indicative of an injury to the corticospinal tract, resulting in abnormal posturing. It may occur spontaneously or in response to stimulation. This posture involves the legs being extended and rotated internally, while the elbows, wrists, and fingers are flexed inward. Choice A is correct because it accurately describes the expected positioning associated with decorticate posturing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B describes a different type of posturing known as opisthotonos. Choice C describes an exaggerated arching of the back, which is not characteristic of decorticate posturing. Choice D describes a different type of posturing with external rotation of the legs and head turning to the side, not consistent with decorticate posturing.
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