Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following best describes the goal of primary health care?

• A. Treating chronic diseases
• B. Providing specialized medical services
• C. Promoting health and preventing illness
• D. Conducting medical research

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Promoting health and preventing illness.' Primary health care aims to provide essential health services, promote health, prevent diseases, and manage common health problems. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because primary health care focuses on a holistic approach to health that includes health promotion, disease prevention, treatment of common illnesses, and community participation, rather than specialized services, chronic disease treatment, or medical research.

2. When admitting a client with Parkinson's disease to the home healthcare service, which nursing diagnosis should have priority in planning care?

• A. Impaired physical mobility related to muscle rigidity and weakness.
• B. Ineffective coping related to depression and dysfunction due to disease progression.
• C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to respiratory muscle weakness.
• D. Fear related to constant possibility of experiencing seizures.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Impaired physical mobility related to muscle rigidity and weakness.' For a client with Parkinson's disease, impaired physical mobility is a priority nursing diagnosis because of the characteristic motor symptoms such as muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability. Addressing impaired physical mobility is crucial to enhance the client's quality of life. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority nursing diagnoses for a client with Parkinson's disease. Ineffective coping (Choice B) and fear of seizures (Choice D) may be concerns but are not the priority. Ineffective breathing pattern (Choice C) is not typically associated with Parkinson's disease.

3. A client with terminal cancer is experiencing severe pain. The nurse plans to implement which of the following pain management strategies?

• A. Administer analgesics on a fixed schedule
• B. Administer analgesics only when the client requests
• C. Use non-pharmacological methods only
• D. Increase the dose of analgesics when the client complains of pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering analgesics on a fixed schedule is the most appropriate pain management strategy for a client with terminal cancer experiencing severe pain. This approach ensures consistent pain control and helps prevent breakthrough pain. Administering analgesics only when the client requests (Choice B) may lead to uncontrolled pain as the client may delay requesting medication until the pain becomes unbearable. Using non-pharmacological methods only (Choice C) may not provide adequate pain relief for a client experiencing severe pain. Increasing the dose of analgesics when the client complains of pain (Choice D) may result in inconsistent pain control and could lead to potential overdose or adverse effects.

4. Care provided by specialists in health facilities such as medical centers, regional, and provincial hospitals falls under which level of care?

• A. Secondary level care
• B. Primary care
• C. Tertiary care
• D. Intermediate care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tertiary care is the correct answer because it involves specialized care provided by medical centers and regional or provincial hospitals. Primary care (Choice B) refers to basic healthcare services usually delivered by general practitioners, nurses, and other healthcare professionals. Secondary care (Choice A) involves specialized services provided by medical specialists and other health professionals who generally do not have first contact with patients. Intermediate care (Choice D) is not a recognized level of care in the typical healthcare system hierarchy; it may cause confusion as it's not a standard term used to describe levels of care.

5. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

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