Nursing Elites

1. During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?

• A. Clubbed nails
• B. Splinter hemorrhages
• C. Longitudinal ridges
• D. Koilonychia or spoon nails

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.

2. Which is the most important safety measure when administering a medication through a patient’s central venous catheter (CVC)?

• A. Using a sterile technique
• B. Ensuring correct placement of the CVC
• C. Flushing the CVC with saline after administration
• D. Monitoring for signs of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important safety measure when administering a medication through a patient’s central venous catheter (CVC) is ensuring the correct placement of the CVC. This is crucial to prevent complications such as extravasation, infection, or improper drug delivery. While using a sterile technique, flushing the CVC with saline after administration, and monitoring for signs of infection are all important aspects of CVC care, ensuring the correct placement of the catheter takes precedence as it directly impacts patient safety during medication administration.

3. A female client who has been taking oral contraceptives for the past year comes to the clinic for an annual exam. Which finding is most important for the PN to report to the HCP?

• A. Breast tenderness
• B. Change in menstrual flow
• C. Left calf pain
• D. Weight gain of 5 pounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Left calf pain could indicate deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious side effect of oral contraceptives. Reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is critical for further evaluation and treatment. Breast tenderness and change in menstrual flow are common side effects of oral contraceptives and may not be as urgent as left calf pain. Weight gain of 5 pounds, while noteworthy, is not as concerning as a possible indication of DVT.

4. A post-operative client develops a sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse suspects a pulmonary embolism (PE). What is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer oxygen via face mask.
• B. Elevate the client's legs.
• C. Prepare the client for immediate surgery.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen via face mask is the priority nursing action in a post-operative client suspected of a pulmonary embolism. This intervention helps ensure adequate oxygenation while further assessments and interventions are initiated. Elevating the client's legs is not indicated for a suspected pulmonary embolism; it is more appropriate for conditions like shock. Immediate surgery is not the priority in this situation as the client is experiencing acute symptoms requiring prompt intervention. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, the immediate focus should be on providing oxygen to the client to support respiratory function.

5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?

• A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
• B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
• C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
• D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.

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