HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. What intervention should the PN implement when taking the rectal temperature of an adult client?
- A. Lubricate the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel.
- B. Gently insert the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum.
- C. Hold the thermometer in place the entire time while taking the temperature.
- D. Place the client in the left lateral position.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When taking a rectal temperature, it is essential to hold the thermometer in place the entire time to ensure safety, accuracy, and prevent the thermometer from slipping out. Choice A, lubricating the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel, is important for comfort and ease of insertion. Choice B, gently inserting the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum, is more accurate for adults than inserting it 3 inches. Choice D, placing the client in the left lateral position, is not necessary for a rectal temperature measurement.
2. The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
- A. Assist the client with a hot bath
- B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
- C. Face the client directly when speaking
- D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.
3. An older male client with Alzheimer's disease is admitted to an extended care facility. Which intervention should the PN include in the client's nursing care plan?
- A. Plan to have the same nursing staff provide care for the client whenever possible
- B. Describe the activities available to residents and encourage him to choose the ones he prefers
- C. Encourage the client to remain on the unit for three weeks until he is oriented to his new surroundings
- D. Introduce the client to the nursing staff and other residents as soon as possible
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Alzheimer's disease in an extended care facility is to plan to have the same nursing staff provide care whenever possible. Consistency in caregivers helps reduce confusion and anxiety in clients with Alzheimer’s disease, promoting a stable and supportive environment for the client. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on activities rather than the consistency of caregivers. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests isolating the client, which can lead to increased confusion and distress. Choice D is incorrect as introducing the client to new people immediately can be overwhelming and may exacerbate their symptoms.
4. You are caring for a patient who just gave birth to a 6 lb. 13 oz. baby boy. The infant gave out a lusty cry, had a pink coloration all over his body, had flexed arms and legs, cried when stimulated, and had a pulse rate of 94. What Apgar score would you expect for this baby?
- A. 10
- B. 8
- C. 7
- D. 9
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The Apgar score is a method used to quickly assess the health of newborns. In this scenario, the baby would receive 2 points for color, reflex irritability, and muscle tone, but only 1 point for a pulse rate of 94, resulting in an Apgar score of 9. An Apgar score of 9 indicates that the baby is in good health overall. Choice A (10) is incorrect because a pulse rate of 94 would only score 1 point. Choices B (8) and C (7) are incorrect as the given criteria would lead to a higher score, indicating the baby's good health.
5. A post-operative client is recovering from a total knee replacement and is prescribed patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). What is the primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain?
- A. It allows for consistent pain control without overmedication.
- B. It eliminates the need for oral pain medication.
- C. It reduces the risk of opioid addiction.
- D. It requires less monitoring by nursing staff.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The primary advantage of PCA for managing post-operative pain is that it allows the client to control the administration of pain medication, leading to consistent pain control without overmedication. Choice B is incorrect as PCA does not eliminate the need for oral pain medication; it supplements it. Choice C is incorrect because while PCA can help reduce opioid consumption, it does not directly reduce the risk of opioid addiction. Choice D is incorrect as PCA actually requires close monitoring by nursing staff to ensure proper use and prevent complications.
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