HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam
1. What intervention should the PN implement when taking the rectal temperature of an adult client?
- A. Lubricate the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel.
- B. Gently insert the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum.
- C. Hold the thermometer in place the entire time while taking the temperature.
- D. Place the client in the left lateral position.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When taking a rectal temperature, it is essential to hold the thermometer in place the entire time to ensure safety, accuracy, and prevent the thermometer from slipping out. Choice A, lubricating the tip of the thermometer with a water-based gel, is important for comfort and ease of insertion. Choice B, gently inserting the thermometer 1 inch into the rectum, is more accurate for adults than inserting it 3 inches. Choice D, placing the client in the left lateral position, is not necessary for a rectal temperature measurement.
2. What is the most common genetic cause of intellectual disability?
- A. Down syndrome
- B. Fragile X syndrome
- C. Prader-Willi syndrome
- D. Turner syndrome
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is Fragile X syndrome because it is the most common inherited cause of intellectual disability, resulting from a mutation in the FMR1 gene. Down syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Turner syndrome are not the most common genetic causes of intellectual disability. Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21, Prader-Willi syndrome results from specific genetic abnormalities on chromosome 15, and Turner syndrome is characterized by the absence of part or all of one of the X chromosomes.
3. There has been a serious explosion at a local factory, and many of the injured are arriving at the hospital. Which of the following patients should a nurse attend to first?
- A. A 30-year-old male who is able to walk into the hospital on his own but has numerous lacerations on the chest and face
- B. A 45-year-old male who was brought in on a stretcher, has been assessed as having respiration and circulation within normal limits, and can follow simple commands
- C. A 50-year-old woman who can walk but has a broken arm and numerous lacerations
- D. A 19-year-old man who has numerous lacerations all over the body and whose respiration exceeds 30 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The 19-year-old man with a respiration rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute is showing signs of respiratory distress, indicating a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Patients with respiratory distress should be prioritized as it is a critical condition. Choices A, B, and C describe patients with injuries that are less immediately life-threatening or who are more stable based on the provided information, so they can be attended to after the patient with respiratory distress. Therefore, the nurse should attend to the 19-year-old man first to address his respiratory distress and ensure his condition does not deteriorate further.
4. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
5. The PN identifies an electrolyte imbalance, exhibited by changes in mental status, and an elevated blood pressure for a client with progressive heart disease. Which intervention should the PN implement first?
- A. Record usual eating patterns
- B. Evaluate for muscle cramping
- C. Document abdominal girth
- D. Elevate both legs on pillows
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Evaluating for muscle cramping, which is a sign of electrolyte imbalance, is crucial in this scenario. Electrolyte imbalances, especially involving potassium or calcium, can lead to serious complications such as arrhythmias or seizures, which need immediate attention. Recording eating patterns (choice A) may be important for overall assessment but is not the priority in this situation. Documenting abdominal girth (choice C) and elevating legs on pillows (choice D) are not directly related to addressing the immediate concern of electrolyte imbalance and its potential complications.
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