inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.

2. At what age does a 9-year-old child typically lose which of the following teeth?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A 9-year-old child typically loses their central incisors, not the lateral incisors or second molars. The central incisors are usually among the first teeth that children lose around 6 to 7 years of age, as part of the natural process of shedding primary teeth to make way for permanent teeth. The second molars and cuspids are typically lost later in the mixed dentition phase. Therefore, option A, 'Central incisor,' is the correct answer.

3. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

4. A 12-year-old child is receiving a blood transfusion via an infusion pump and begins to complain of 'itchy' skin 15 minutes after the unit of blood is started. The child appears flushed. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Stopping the transfusion immediately is crucial when signs of a transfusion reaction, such as itching and flushing, occur. This action is taken to prevent further exposure to the potentially harmful transfused blood. Applying lotion to the skin, inspecting the infusion site, or obtaining vital signs can be important but are secondary to stopping the transfusion to ensure the safety of the child. Applying lotion may not address the underlying issue of a possible transfusion reaction. Inspecting the infusion site and obtaining vital signs can be done after stopping the transfusion, as patient safety is the top priority in this situation.

5. While turning and positioning a bedfast client, the PN observes that the client is dyspneic. Which action should the PN take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Notifying the charge nurse promptly is the priority when a bedfast client is dyspneic. Dyspnea can indicate a serious problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Contacting the charge nurse ensures timely assistance and appropriate actions to address the client's condition. Applying a pulse oximeter or measuring blood pressure may provide valuable data, but the priority is prompt communication with the charge nurse to ensure quick intervention. Observing pressure areas, while important for overall client care, is not the most immediate action needed when a client is experiencing dyspnea.

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