HESI LPN
PN Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. Inspiratory and expiratory stridor may be heard in a client who:
- A. Is experiencing an exacerbation of goiter
- B. Is experiencing an acute asthmatic attack
- C. Has aspirated a piece of meat
- D. Has severe laryngotracheitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Inspiratory and expiratory stridor are high-pitched, wheezing sounds caused by disrupted airflow due to airway obstruction. Severe laryngotracheitis, involving inflammation and swelling of the larynx and trachea, leads to airway obstruction and can produce both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Exacerbation of goiter, an acute asthmatic attack, and aspiration of a piece of meat are not typically associated with both inspiratory and expiratory stridor. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
2. Before administering an antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity, which lab value is most important for the nurse to review?
- A. Hemoglobin and Hematocrit
- B. Serum Calcium
- C. Serum Creatinine
- D. WBC
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum Creatinine. Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function. Reviewing this value is crucial as it helps assess the client's risk for nephrotoxicity before administering the antibiotic. Elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which would increase the risk of nephrotoxicity. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly related to kidney function and nephrotoxicity. Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels assess for anemia, serum calcium levels monitor calcium balance, and WBC count evaluates for infections. While these values are important for overall patient assessment, they are not as specific to assessing nephrotoxicity risk as serum creatinine.
3. In what order should the PN implement these steps to provide wound care? (Place in correct order.)
- A. Don procedure gloves
- B. Remove the dressing
- C. Apply prescribed medications to the wound
- D. All of the Above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D - All of the Above.' The PN should first don procedure gloves to maintain aseptic technique, then remove the dressing to assess the wound, and finally apply prescribed medications to the wound. This sequence ensures that non-sterile tasks like donning gloves are done before sterile tasks like applying medications, reducing the risk of wound contamination. Choices A, B, and C are all essential steps in providing effective wound care.
4. A homeless male client with a history of alcohol abuse had a CVA 10 years ago that resulted in left hemiparesis. Today he is brought to the clinic reporting pain in his left leg. He is afebrile, has 4+ pitting edema in the lower left leg, and has minimal swelling of the right leg. Which action should the PN implement first?
- A. Obtain a blood alcohol test
- B. Inspect legs for infection or trauma
- C. Complete a mental status exam
- D. Inquire about dietary salt intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Inspecting the legs for infection or trauma is the priority to assess the cause of the pain and edema, which could indicate deep vein thrombosis or cellulitis. Checking for signs of infection or trauma is crucial in this scenario to rule out potentially serious conditions. Obtaining a blood alcohol test, completing a mental status exam, or inquiring about dietary salt intake can be considered after addressing the immediate concern of identifying any infection or trauma in the leg.
5. At what age does a 9-year-old child typically lose which of the following teeth?
- A. Central incisor
- B. Second molar
- C. Lateral incisor
- D. Cuspid
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A 9-year-old child typically loses their central incisors, not the lateral incisors or second molars. The central incisors are usually among the first teeth that children lose around 6 to 7 years of age, as part of the natural process of shedding primary teeth to make way for permanent teeth. The second molars and cuspids are typically lost later in the mixed dentition phase. Therefore, option A, 'Central incisor,' is the correct answer.
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