Nursing Elites

1. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It helps ensure that the heparin levels are within the desired range to prevent either clotting or excessive bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but does not directly assess heparin's therapeutic effect. Prothrombin time (PT) (B) and International normalized ratio (INR) (D) are used to monitor patients on warfarin, not heparin therapy.

2. Which of the following areas does the Patient’s Bill of Rights cover?

• A. Information disclosure
• B. Choice of providers
• C. Choice of plans
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Patient’s Bill of Rights encompasses various areas to protect patients' rights. These include ensuring information disclosure, allowing patients to choose their healthcare providers, and giving them options to select plans that suit their needs. Therefore, all the choices - information disclosure, choice of providers, and choice of plans - are covered under the Patient’s Bill of Rights. The option 'Best payment options' is not relevant to the areas typically addressed by the Patient’s Bill of Rights.

3. Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to increase the risk of a medication error?

• A. Not using abbreviations for medications
• B. Errors in the calculation of medication dosages
• C. Barcoding medication orders
• D. Utilizing unit dose dispensers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Errors in the calculation of medication dosages are a significant risk factor for medication errors. When dosage calculations are incorrect, it can lead to administering the wrong amount of medication, posing serious harm to the patient. Avoiding abbreviations for medications, barcoding medication orders, and utilizing unit dose dispensers are all strategies aimed at reducing medication errors by enhancing accuracy and safety. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are practices that help decrease, rather than increase, the risk of medication errors.

4. Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell?

• A. Olfactory nerve
• B. Optic nerve
• C. Trigeminal nerve
• D. Vagus nerve

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The olfactory nerve (Cranial Nerve I) is indeed responsible for the sense of smell. It is located in the nasal cavity and transmits olfactory information to the brain. The optic nerve (Choice B) is responsible for vision, the trigeminal nerve (Choice C) is responsible for sensation in the face, and the vagus nerve (Choice D) is responsible for various functions such as heart rate, digestion, and speech. Therefore, the correct answer is the olfactory nerve (Choice A).

5. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?

• A. Glucose should be taken if I have a fruity breath odor.
• B. Glucose should be taken if I am urinating more than usual.
• C. Glucose should be taken if I have blurred vision.
• D. Glucose should be taken if I develop shakiness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.

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