which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy
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HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet

1. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor for a patient receiving heparin therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Partial thromboplastin time (PTT). PTT is monitored to assess the therapeutic effect of heparin therapy. It helps ensure that the heparin levels are within the desired range to prevent either clotting or excessive bleeding. Platelet count (A) is important but does not directly assess heparin's therapeutic effect. Prothrombin time (PT) (B) and International normalized ratio (INR) (D) are used to monitor patients on warfarin, not heparin therapy.

2. When reinforcing diet teaching for a client diagnosed with hypokalemia, which foods should the PN encourage the client to eat? Select All That Apply

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: All are applicable. Foods rich in potassium, such as orange juice, oranges, bananas, collard greens, kale, soybeans, lima beans, and spinach, are essential for managing hypokalemia. These options provide a significant source of potassium, which helps in maintaining normal heart and muscle function. Choice A is incorrect because it does not include all the appropriate potassium-rich foods. Choice C is incorrect as it only mentions vegetables rich in potassium, missing out on other essential sources like fruits and beans. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks key potassium-rich foods like oranges and bananas.

3. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.

4. There has been a serious explosion at a local factory, and many of the injured are arriving at the hospital. Which of the following patients should a nurse attend to first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The 19-year-old man with a respiration rate exceeding 30 breaths per minute is showing signs of respiratory distress, indicating a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Patients with respiratory distress should be prioritized as it is a critical condition. Choices A, B, and C describe patients with injuries that are less immediately life-threatening or who are more stable based on the provided information, so they can be attended to after the patient with respiratory distress. Therefore, the nurse should attend to the 19-year-old man first to address his respiratory distress and ensure his condition does not deteriorate further.

5. A client is post-operative day two from an abdominal surgery and reports feeling weak and lightheaded when attempting to get out of bed. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse's priority action should be to assist the client back to bed and monitor vital signs. The client's symptoms of feeling weak and lightheaded could indicate potential issues like hypotension or dehydration, which need to be assessed promptly. Encouraging fluids (Choice A) could be beneficial but is not the immediate priority. Administering an antiemetic (Choice C) may not address the underlying cause of the client's symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after the client has been stabilized and assessed.

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