HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A nurse receives a report about a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing IV at 125 mL/hr. When the nurse performs the initial assessment, they note that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hrs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the IV tubing for obstruction
- B. Increase the infusion rate
- C. Administer a bolus of fluid
- D. Replace the IV catheter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. By doing this, the nurse can assess if there is any blockage or kink in the tubing that is impeding the flow of the IV solution. This step is crucial as it helps in identifying the reason for the inadequate infusion rate. Increasing the infusion rate (Choice B) without first checking for obstructions can lead to potential complications if there is a blockage. Administering a bolus of fluid (Choice C) may not be appropriate without addressing the cause of the decreased infusion rate. Similarly, replacing the IV catheter (Choice D) is not the initial priority unless obstruction is ruled out and other troubleshooting measures have been taken.
2. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?
- A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
- B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
- C. A notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner
- D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, when the client is unconscious and unable to make decisions, a notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner should be given priority to guide the direction of care. Advance directives provide legal documentation of the client's wishes regarding healthcare decisions in situations where they cannot express their preferences. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) outlines general principles but does not provide specific guidance on the client's care. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) are important but may not reflect the client's preferences. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are useful for standard care pathways but do not address individual client wishes.
3. The patient refuses a morning bath, stating a preference for evening baths. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Defer the bath until evening and pass on the information to the next shift.
- B. Tell the patient that daily morning baths are the 'normal' routine.
- C. Explain the importance of maintaining morning hygiene practices.
- D. Cancel hygiene for the day and attempt again in the morning.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best action for the nurse is to respect the patient's preference and autonomy. By deferring the bath until evening, the nurse acknowledges and accommodates the patient's routine, promoting patient-centered care. Choice B could be seen as dismissive of the patient's preference and may not foster a therapeutic relationship. Choice C, while important, doesn't address the patient's current refusal. Choice D is not respectful of the patient's autonomy and could lead to increased resistance. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate and patient-centered approach.
4. The client is receiving continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which finding indicates that the bladder irrigation is effective?
- A. The client reports minimal pain and discomfort.
- B. The urine appears clear and free of clots.
- C. The client has no signs of infection.
- D. The client is able to void independently.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of clear urine free of clots is an indicator that the bladder irrigation is effective. This finding suggests that the irrigation is preventing clot formation and ensuring proper drainage, which is crucial after a TURP procedure. The client reporting minimal pain and discomfort (choice A) may be a positive sign but does not directly reflect the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation. The absence of infection signs (choice C) is important but not specific to evaluating the bladder irrigation. The client being able to void independently (choice D) is a good sign overall but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of the bladder irrigation.
5. Following surgery on the neck, the client asks the LPN why the head of the bed is up so high. The LPN should tell the client that the high-Fowler position is preferred for what reason?
- A. To reduce strain on the incision
- B. To promote drainage of the wound
- C. To provide stimulation for the client
- D. To reduce edema at the operative site
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The high-Fowler position is preferred after neck surgery to reduce edema at the operative site. Elevating the head of the bed promotes venous return and drainage, aiding in decreasing swelling and fluid accumulation, which helps reduce edema at the operative site. Choice A is incorrect as the main purpose is not solely about reducing strain on the incision. Choice B is incorrect because while drainage may occur, it is not the primary reason for maintaining the high-Fowler position. Choice C is incorrect as providing stimulation is not the primary rationale for positioning the client in high-Fowler.
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