Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client with bilateral chest tubes, the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container
• B. Replace the water-seal collection container
• C. Increase the amount of wall suction connected to the right chest tube
• D. Milk the tubing connected to the right chest tube

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take when the bubbling in the water-seal chamber of the right chest tube stops is to check the chest tube connections to the water-seal container. This is crucial to ensure there are no disconnections or leaks affecting the bubbling. Replacing the water-seal collection container (choice B) is not necessary unless there is a malfunction; increasing suction (choice C) without assessing the connections can be harmful, and 'milking' the tubing (choice D) is an inappropriate action that can cause damage to the system.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Visual disturbances
• C. Presence of uremic frost
• D. Decreased mentation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) include increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation. These symptoms are often associated with HHNS due to the high blood glucose levels. Uremic frost, a sign of advanced kidney disease, is not typically associated with HHNS. Therefore, choices B and D are incorrect. However, choice C, 'Presence of uremic frost,' is incorrect as it is not typically associated with HHNS.

3. When preparing to discharge a male client who has been hospitalized for an adrenal crisis, the client expresses concern about having another crisis. He tells the nurse that he wants to stay in the hospital a few more days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions
• B. Schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment
• C. Obtain a blood cortisol level before discharge
• D. Encourage the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to schedule a follow-up appointment for an outpatient psychosocial assessment. This option addresses the client's concerns and provides support for managing stress and preventing future crises, which is crucial for the client's long-term care. Administering antianxiety medication before providing discharge instructions (Choice A) may not effectively address the underlying concerns. Obtaining a blood cortisol level before discharge (Choice C) is important but not the priority in this situation. Encouraging the client to remain in the hospital for a few more days (Choice D) is not the best course of action as it may not address the client's anxiety and could potentially lead to other issues.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) and notes that the output flow is 100ml less than the input flow. Which actions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Continue to monitor intake and output with the next exchange
• B. Check the client's blood pressure and serum bicarbonate levels
• C. Irrigate the dialysis catheter
• D. Change the client's position

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to change the client's position. Altering the client's position can help facilitate better fluid drainage in peritoneal dialysis, potentially resolving the issue without the need for more invasive interventions. Continuing to monitor intake and output (Choice A) is important but addressing the immediate drainage issue takes precedence. Checking blood pressure and serum bicarbonate levels (Choice B) is not directly related to the observed output flow discrepancy. Irrigating the dialysis catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action as it is more invasive and should be considered only if repositioning does not resolve the issue.

5. After 2 days of treatment for dehydration, a child continues to vomit and have diarrhea. Normal saline is infusing, and the child’s urine output is 50ml/hour. During morning assessment, the nurse determines that the child is lethargic and difficult to arouse. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Perform a finger stick glucose test
• B. Increase the IV fluid flow rate
• C. Review 24-hour intake and output
• D. Obtain arterial blood gases

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lethargy and difficulty arousing may indicate hypoglycemia, which should be assessed before other actions. Performing a finger stick glucose test is crucial to evaluate the child's blood sugar levels and address hypoglycemia promptly. Increasing the IV fluid flow rate is not indicated without knowing the glucose status. Reviewing 24-hour intake and output is important but not the priority when lethargy and difficulty arousing are present. Obtaining arterial blood gases is not the primary assessment needed in this situation.

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