Nursing Elites

1. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

2. What intervention should the nurse implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm?

• A. Assess IV site frequently for signs of extravasation
• B. Monitor capillary refill distal to the infusion site
• C. Apply a topical anesthetic at the infusion site for burning
• D. Explain that temporary burning at the IV site may occur

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention the nurse should implement during the administration of a vesicant chemotherapeutic agent via an IV site in the client's arm is to assess the IV site frequently for signs of extravasation. Vesicants are agents that can cause tissue damage if they leak into the surrounding tissues. Monitoring for signs of extravasation such as swelling, pain, or redness is crucial to prevent tissue damage and ensure prompt intervention if extravasation occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because monitoring capillary refill, applying a topical anesthetic for burning, and explaining temporary burning do not directly address the risk of extravasation associated with vesicant chemotherapeutic agents.

3. In preparing a care plan for a client admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome, which nursing problem has the highest priority?

• A. Ineffective coping related to uncertainty of disease progression
• B. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to impaired swallowing reflex
• C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to ascending paralysis
• D. Impaired physical mobility related to asymmetrical descending paralysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ineffective breathing pattern is the highest priority nursing problem for a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome due to the potential risk of respiratory failure. As the paralysis ascends, it can affect the muscles needed for breathing, leading to respiratory compromise. Addressing this problem promptly is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and failure. Choices A, B, and D are also important nursing problems in Guillain-Barre syndrome, but ensuring effective breathing takes precedence over coping, nutrition, and mobility due to the immediate threat it poses to the client's life.

4. In developing a plan of care for a client admitted to a mental health unit after attempting suicide by taking a handful of medications, which goal has the highest priority?

• A. Signs a no-self-harm contract
• B. Sleep for at least 6 hours nightly
• C. Attends group therapy every day
• D. Verbalizes a positive self-image

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Signs a no-self-harm contract. Ensuring the client’s immediate safety by having them commit to not engaging in self-harm is the highest priority after a suicide attempt. This measure aims to prevent further harm to the client. While sleep, group therapy, and self-image are important aspects of care, they are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the immediate aftermath of a suicide attempt. Prioritizing the establishment of a no-self-harm contract creates a foundation for addressing other therapeutic goals in the client's care plan.

5. A 2-year-old boy with short bowel syndrome has progressed to receiving enteral feedings only. Today his stools are occurring more frequently and have a more liquid consistency. His temperature is 102.2 °F, and he has vomited twice in the past four hours. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is becoming dehydrated?

• A. Occult blood in the stool
• B. Abdominal distention
• C. Elevated urine specific gravity
• D. Hyperactive bowel sounds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, a sign of dehydration. In this scenario, the child is showing signs of dehydration with increased stool frequency, liquid consistency, fever, and vomiting. Occult blood in the stool may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding but is not a specific sign of dehydration. Abdominal distention can be seen in various conditions and is not a specific indicator of dehydration. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be present in various gastrointestinal conditions but are not directly related to dehydration.

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