Nursing Elites

1. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

2. An adult client with a broken femur is transferred to the medical-surgical unit to await surgical internal fixation after the application of an external traction device to stabilize the leg. An hour after an opioid analgesic was administered, the client reports muscle spasms and pain at the fracture site. While waiting for the client to be transported to surgery, which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Observe for signs of deep vein thrombosis.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant.
• C. Check the client’s most recent electrolyte values.
• D. Reduce the weight on the traction device.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant. Muscle spasms and pain might be relieved by muscle relaxants, which are appropriate before surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the client is experiencing muscle spasms, not signs of deep vein thrombosis. Choice C is not the most immediate action needed in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because reducing the weight on the traction device would not directly address the muscle spasms and pain reported by the client.

3. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports that a client’s blood pressure cannot be measured because the client has casts on both arms and is unable to be turned to the prone position for blood pressure measurement in the legs. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Advise the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained on the client's graphic sheet
• B. Estimate the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of the client’s radial pulses
• C. Demonstrate how to palpate the popliteal pulse with the client supine and the knee flexed
• D. Document why the blood pressure cannot be accurately measured at the present time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client cannot have their blood pressure measured due to specific circumstances such as casts on both arms, the nurse should document the reason why the blood pressure cannot be obtained accurately. This documentation is crucial for maintaining a clear record of the client's condition and for continuity of care. Advising the UAP to document the last blood pressure obtained (Choice A) does not address the current inability to measure the blood pressure. Estimating the blood pressure by assessing the pulse volume of radial pulses (Choice B) is not a reliable method for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. Demonstrating how to palpate the popliteal pulse (Choice C) is irrelevant in this situation as it does not provide a solution for accurately measuring the blood pressure.

4. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit, returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him 'feel bad.' In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Feed the client a snack
• B. Empty the urinary drainage bag
• C. Offer the client oral fluids
• D. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure, if left uncontrolled, significantly increases the risk of stroke secondary to hemorrhage and other cardiovascular events. This condition can lead to serious complications due to the increased pressure on the blood vessels in the brain. Choices A, B, and C are unrelated to the potential pathophysiological consequences of uncontrolled hypertension and are not the primary concern in this scenario.

5. After receiving a report on an inpatient acute care unit, which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. The client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus who is experiencing abdominal rigidity
• B. The client who had surgery yesterday and is experiencing a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds
• C. The client with an obstruction of the large intestine who is experiencing abdominal distention
• D. The client with a small bowel obstruction who has a nasogastric tube that is draining greenish fluid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Abdominal rigidity in a client with bowel obstruction due to a volvulus indicates possible complications and requires immediate assessment. Choice B is incorrect because although a paralytic ileus with absent bowel sounds is concerning, abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus takes priority. Choice C is incorrect as abdominal distention, though indicative of an obstruction, is not as urgent as the sign of abdominal rigidity. Choice D is incorrect as the drainage of greenish fluid from a nasogastric tube in a client with a small bowel obstruction, while concerning, does not present as immediate a threat as the abdominal rigidity in a client with a volvulus.

Similar Questions