Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a family whose children did not receive childhood immunizations. After one of the children contracted mumps, the father is diagnosed with orchitis. Which intervention should be included in the father's plan of care?

• A. Use of bedrest with scrotal support
• B. Administration of antibiotics for 10 days
• C. Applying heat to promote the healing process
• D. Using an ice pack to reduce scrotal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For orchitis, the recommended intervention is bedrest with scrotal support. This helps reduce swelling and discomfort in the scrotum. Antibiotics are generally not required for viral orchitis, so administering antibiotics for 10 days (Choice B) is not indicated. Applying heat (Choice C) may worsen swelling and should be avoided. Using an ice pack (Choice D) is not the preferred method for managing orchitis; it may not be as effective as providing support and rest for the scrotum.

2. A premature infant weighing 1,200 grams at birth receives a prescription for beractant (Survanta) 120 mg endotracheal now and q6 hr for 24 hr. The recommended dose for beractant is 100 mg/kg birth weight per dose. Single-use vials of Survanta are labeled 100 mg/4 ml. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Give 4.8 ml q6 hr
• B. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high
• C. Notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low
• D. Give 1.2 ml q6 hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to give 4.8 ml q6 hr. To calculate the dose, you divide the prescribed dose of 120 mg by the concentration of Survanta, which is 100 mg per 4 ml. This results in 4.8 ml per dose, as 120 mg ÷ 100 mg/4 ml = 4.8 ml. Option B suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too high is incorrect because the calculated dose of 4.8 ml is based on the recommended dose of 100 mg/kg birth weight. Option C suggesting to notify the healthcare provider that the dose is too low is incorrect as the calculated dose is based on the correct dosage calculation. Option D suggesting to give 1.2 ml q6 hr is incorrect because it doesn't align with the correct calculation.

3. Where should the nurse choose as the best location to begin a screening program for hypothyroidism?

• A. A business and professional women's group.
• B. An African-American senior citizens center.
• C. A daycare center in a Hispanic neighborhood.
• D. An after-school center for Native-American teens.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best location for beginning a screening program for hypothyroidism would be an African-American senior citizens center. This choice is the most suitable as hypothyroidism is more prevalent among older adults, and African-American seniors are at a higher risk for this condition due to various factors like genetics and lifestyle. Choices A, C, and D are less appropriate because hypothyroidism is not specifically linked to business and professional women, Hispanic children, or Native-American teens. Targeting the high-risk group, which in this case, are African-American seniors, increases the chances of successful screening and early detection.

4. The nurse is caring for a group of clients on a surgical unit. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A client who is two days post knee surgery and describes pain at a “4” on a 1 to 10 scale
• B. A client who is one day post bowel resection with no bowel sounds
• C. A client who is 8 hours post appendectomy with urinary output of 480 ml
• D. A client who was admitted with severe abdominal pain and suddenly has no pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A sudden absence of pain in a client with severe abdominal pain may indicate a serious condition such as internal bleeding. This sudden change in pain status requires immediate assessment to rule out any life-threatening complications. Choices A, B, and C do not indicate an acute change in the client's condition that would necessitate immediate attention compared to sudden pain relief in a client with severe abdominal pain.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left leg is on a heparin protocol. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

• A. Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.
• B. Assess blood pressure and heart rate at least every 4 hours.
• C. Measure calf girth to evaluate edema in the affected leg.
• D. Encourage mobilization to prevent pulmonary embolism.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Observe for bleeding side effects related to heparin therapy.' This is the most crucial intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) on a heparin protocol. Heparin, being an anticoagulant, increases the risk of bleeding as a side effect. Therefore, close monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, is essential to prevent severe complications. While assessing blood pressure and heart rate (Choice B) is important, it is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Measuring calf girth (Choice C) may help evaluate edema but is not as vital as observing for bleeding complications. Encouraging mobilization (Choice D) is beneficial for preventing complications like pulmonary embolism, but in this scenario, monitoring for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk associated with anticoagulant therapy.

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