Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a family whose children did not receive childhood immunizations. After one of the children contracted mumps, the father is diagnosed with orchitis. Which intervention should be included in the father's plan of care?

• A. Use of bedrest with scrotal support
• B. Administration of antibiotics for 10 days
• C. Applying heat to promote the healing process
• D. Using an ice pack to reduce scrotal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For orchitis, the recommended intervention is bedrest with scrotal support. This helps reduce swelling and discomfort in the scrotum. Antibiotics are generally not required for viral orchitis, so administering antibiotics for 10 days (Choice B) is not indicated. Applying heat (Choice C) may worsen swelling and should be avoided. Using an ice pack (Choice D) is not the preferred method for managing orchitis; it may not be as effective as providing support and rest for the scrotum.

2. The school nurse is screening students for spinal abnormalities and instructs each student to stand up and then touch their toes. Which finding indicates that a student should be referred for scoliosis evaluation?

• A. Inability to touch their toes
• B. Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright
• C. Audible crepitus when bending
• D. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright is a common indicator of scoliosis. This finding suggests a possible spinal abnormality and should prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific indicators of scoliosis. Inability to touch their toes may indicate flexibility issues or tightness in the hamstrings. Audible crepitus when bending may suggest joint degeneration or inflammation. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature could indicate poor posture or other spinal abnormalities but is not directly indicative of scoliosis.

3. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a client with acute gastritis caused by drinking contaminated water. The nurse should emphasize the need to report the onset of which problem?

• A. Low-grade fever
• B. Bruising of the skin
• C. Abdominal cramping
• D. Bloody emesis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bloody emesis. Bloody emesis indicates potential bleeding or severe irritation, which should be reported immediately. In the context of acute gastritis, bloody emesis could indicate a more serious complication that requires urgent medical attention. Choices A, B, and C are not typically associated with acute gastritis caused by contaminated water and do not signal as critical of a condition as bloody emesis. Low-grade fever, bruising of the skin, and abdominal cramping are more commonly associated with other conditions or may be less urgent in this context.

4. A young adult female presents at the emergency center with acute lower abdominal pain. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Pain scale rating of 9 on a 0-10 scale
• B. Last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago
• C. Reports white curdy vaginal discharge
• D. History of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A missed menstrual period could indicate a possible pregnancy-related issue, requiring urgent evaluation. Assessing the menstrual history in a female of reproductive age takes precedence in this scenario. Choice A, the pain scale rating, is important but not as urgent as evaluating the menstrual history. Choice C, reporting white curdy vaginal discharge, may suggest a vaginal infection but is not as critical as ruling out a potential pregnancy. Choice D, the history of irritable bowel syndrome, is relevant but not as crucial as determining pregnancy-related issues in this context.

5. A client is receiving lidocaine IV at 3 mg/minute. The pharmacy dispenses a 500 ml IV solution of normal saline (NS) with 2 grams of lidocaine. The nurse should regulate the infusion pump to deliver how many ml/hour?

• A. 18
• B. 27
• C. 36
• D. 45

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The infusion rate is calculated based on the concentration of lidocaine and the prescribed rate of infusion. First, convert lidocaine's weight to milligrams (2 grams = 2000 mg). Then, use the formula: (Total volume in ml * dose in mg) / 60 minutes. For this case, (500 ml * 2000 mg) / 60 minutes = 45 ml/hour. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not reflect the accurate calculation based on the provided concentration and infusion rate.

Similar Questions