HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. The nurse is planning care for a family whose children did not receive childhood immunizations. After one of the children contracted mumps, the father is diagnosed with orchitis. Which intervention should be included in the father's plan of care?
- A. Use of bedrest with scrotal support
- B. Administration of antibiotics for 10 days
- C. Applying heat to promote the healing process
- D. Using an ice pack to reduce scrotal pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For orchitis, the recommended intervention is bedrest with scrotal support. This helps reduce swelling and discomfort in the scrotum. Antibiotics are generally not required for viral orchitis, so administering antibiotics for 10 days (Choice B) is not indicated. Applying heat (Choice C) may worsen swelling and should be avoided. Using an ice pack (Choice D) is not the preferred method for managing orchitis; it may not be as effective as providing support and rest for the scrotum.
2. A female client with borderline personality disorder is being discharged today. During morning rounds, the client complains about the aloofness of the night shift nurse and expresses joy to see the nurse on duty. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client’s dichotomous tendency?
- A. I am glad you like me. Which nurse was acting aloof to you?
- B. Tomorrow I will talk to that nurse about how you were treated last night.
- C. What did the night nurse do that makes you think she is aloof?
- D. I am happy that you are getting better and will be able to go home.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the best response as it acknowledges the client's feelings while exploring their concerns. By asking which nurse was acting aloof, the nurse shows understanding and allows the client to express their feelings further. This response validates the client's emotions and fosters a therapeutic relationship. Choice B focuses on a future action without addressing the immediate concern at hand. Choice C seeks clarification on the night nurse's behavior, which is a good approach but lacks the personal touch of Choice A. Choice D shifts the focus away from the client's current feelings and concerns, missing the opportunity to address the dichotomous thinking displayed by the client.
3. The practical nurse (PN) is assigned to work with three registered nurses (RN) who are caring for neurologically compromised clients. The client with which change in status is best to assign to the PN?
- A. Diabetic ketoacidosis whose Glasgow Coma Scale score changed from 10 to 7
- B. Subdural hematoma whose blood pressure changed from 150/80 mmHg to 170/60 mmHg
- C. Myxedema coma whose blood pressure changed from 80/50 mmHg to 70/40 mmHg
- D. Viral meningitis whose temperature changed from 101° F (38.3 C) to 102° F (38.9C)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because viral meningitis with a slight increase in temperature is less acute and complex compared to the other conditions. This change in temperature does not indicate a critical or urgent situation requiring immediate attention or intervention beyond the scope of a practical nurse. Choices A, B, and C present more significant changes in health status such as a decrease in Glasgow Coma Scale score, an increase in intracranial pressure indicated by blood pressure changes, and a significant drop in blood pressure, respectively. These changes require closer monitoring and intervention by registered nurses due to the higher acuity and complexity of care needed for these conditions.
4. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?
- A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
- B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
- C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
- D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.
5. The client has silvery scaling plaques bilaterally on elbows, forearms, and palms. When scratched, the skin bleeds over these plaques. What is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Interventions to decrease emotional stress
- B. Precautions about avoiding sunlight
- C. Strategies to increase omega-3 fatty acids in the diet
- D. Instruct about applying a corticosteroid cream
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important aspect to include in this client's plan of care is interventions to decrease emotional stress. Psoriasis, characterized by silvery scaling plaques on the skin, can be exacerbated by emotional stress. Managing stress is crucial in controlling the condition. Precautions about avoiding sunlight are important in psoriasis management, but emotional stress has a more significant impact. While omega-3 fatty acids may provide some benefits, stress management should take priority. Applying a corticosteroid cream may help with symptoms, but addressing emotional stress is crucial for long-term management of psoriasis.
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