Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a family whose children did not receive childhood immunizations. After one of the children contracted mumps, the father is diagnosed with orchitis. Which intervention should be included in the father's plan of care?

• A. Use of bedrest with scrotal support
• B. Administration of antibiotics for 10 days
• C. Applying heat to promote the healing process
• D. Using an ice pack to reduce scrotal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For orchitis, the recommended intervention is bedrest with scrotal support. This helps reduce swelling and discomfort in the scrotum. Antibiotics are generally not required for viral orchitis, so administering antibiotics for 10 days (Choice B) is not indicated. Applying heat (Choice C) may worsen swelling and should be avoided. Using an ice pack (Choice D) is not the preferred method for managing orchitis; it may not be as effective as providing support and rest for the scrotum.

2. A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Review of recent laboratory test results shows that the client’s serum magnesium level has decreased below the normal range. In addition to contacting the healthcare provider, what nursing action is most important?

• A. Check the visual difficulties
• B. Note the most recent hemoglobin level
• C. Assess for hand and joint pain
• D. Observe rhythm on telemetry monitor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the rhythm on the telemetry monitor. Decreased magnesium levels can lead to cardiac issues, such as arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm is crucial in this situation. Checking visual difficulties (choice A) is not directly related to the potential cardiac effects of low magnesium levels. Noting the hemoglobin level (choice B) and assessing for hand and joint pain (choice C) are not the priority when dealing with low magnesium levels and possible cardiac complications.

3. Two days after an abdominal hysterectomy, an elderly female with diabetes has a syncopal episode. The nurse determines that her vital signs are within normal limits, but her blood sugar is 325 mg/dL or 18.04 mmol/L (SI). What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer regular insulin per sliding scale
• B. Cancel the client's dinner tray
• C. Give the client 4 ounces (120 mL) of orange juice
• D. Administer the next scheduled dose of metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the nurse should implement the intervention of administering regular insulin per sliding scale. High blood sugar levels, as indicated by a reading of 325 mg/dL, require insulin administration to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia. Canceling the client's dinner tray (choice B) would not address the immediate need to lower the blood sugar level. Giving the client orange juice (choice C) might further increase the blood sugar level as it contains sugar. Administering the next scheduled dose of metformin (choice D) is not appropriate as metformin is not typically used for acute management of high blood sugar levels.

4. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?

• A. Right lower abdominal pain
• B. Confusion
• C. Depression
• D. Peripheral neuropathy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke’s syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke’s syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.

5. The nurse is admitting a client from the post-anesthesia unit to the postoperative surgical care unit. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Advance to clear liquids as tolerated
• B. Straight catheterization if unable to void
• C. Administer Cefazolin 1 gram IVPQ q6 hours
• D. Obtain a complete blood cell count (CBC) in the morning

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform straight catheterization if the client is unable to void. This action is essential to prevent urinary retention and its potential complications following anesthesia. Option A, advancing to clear liquids, is not the priority upon admission as the focus should be on urinary function first. Option C involves administering an antibiotic, which is important but not the immediate priority. Option D, obtaining a CBC, can be done later and is not as crucial as ensuring proper urinary function postoperatively.

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