HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Practice Questions
1. When a nurse from the surgical department is reassigned to the pediatric unit, the charge nurse should recognize that the child at highest risk for cardiac arrest and is the least likely to be assigned to this nurse is which child?
- A. Congenital cardiac defects
- B. An acute febrile illness
- C. Prolonged hypoxemia
- D. Severe multiple trauma
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Prolonged hypoxemia.' Prolonged hypoxemia is a critical condition that requires specialized pediatric care due to the high risk of cardiac arrest. The other choices, such as congenital cardiac defects, acute febrile illness, and severe multiple trauma, may also require attention, but prolonged hypoxemia poses the highest risk for cardiac arrest and demands specialized expertise in managing pediatric patients with this condition.
2. The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a community health program aimed at reducing teen pregnancy rates. Which outcome indicates the program was successful?
- A. increased attendance at health education classes
- B. decreased number of repeat pregnancies among teens
- C. higher number of teens seeking prenatal care
- D. greater use of contraception among teens
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: greater use of contraception among teens. This outcome indicates successful prevention of pregnancies by demonstrating that teens are taking proactive steps to avoid unintended pregnancies. Increased attendance at health education classes (choice A) may show improved knowledge but does not directly measure the prevention of pregnancies. While a decreased number of repeat pregnancies among teens (choice B) is positive, it does not necessarily indicate prevention of initial pregnancies. A higher number of teens seeking prenatal care (choice C) is important for maternal and fetal health but does not directly reflect the prevention of teen pregnancies.
3. The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Which client complaint calls for immediate nursing action?
- A. Diaphoresis and shakiness
- B. Reduced sensation in the lower leg
- C. Intense thirst and hunger
- D. Painful hematoma on thigh
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Diaphoresis and shakiness are classic signs of hypoglycemia in a client with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus. Hypoglycemia is a medical emergency that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. The nurse should address this complaint promptly by providing a fast-acting source of glucose to raise the client's blood sugar levels. Reduced sensation in the lower leg may indicate peripheral neuropathy, which is a common complication of diabetes but does not require immediate action unless there are signs of injury. Intense thirst and hunger are symptoms of hyperglycemia, which also requires intervention but not as urgently as hypoglycemia. A painful hematoma on the thigh may require assessment and management, but it is not as urgent as addressing hypoglycemia.
4. A young child is admitted for treatment of lead poisoning. The nurse recognizes that the most serious effect of chronic lead poisoning is
- A. Central nervous system damage
- B. Moderate anemia
- C. Renal tubule damage
- D. Growth impairment
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Chronic lead poisoning can lead to severe and irreversible damage to the central nervous system, including cognitive and developmental delays. Central nervous system damage is the most serious effect of chronic lead poisoning because it can have long-lasting consequences on a child's cognitive function and overall development. Moderate anemia (Choice B), renal tubule damage (Choice C), and growth impairment (Choice D) can also occur due to lead poisoning, but they are not as severe or potentially irreversible as the damage to the central nervous system.
5. Which of the following statements can motivate a couple to practice family planning?
- A. Family planning helps families improve their standard of living.
- B. Family planning reduces or eliminates fear of unwanted pregnancies.
- C. Family planning affords family members time to study or pursue personal interests.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the listed statements provide valid reasons to motivate couples to practice family planning. Option A highlights how family planning can lead to an improvement in the standard of living by allowing families to better manage their resources. Option B emphasizes the importance of family planning in reducing or eliminating the fear of unwanted pregnancies, which can have significant emotional and financial implications for couples. Option C points out that family planning can also afford family members time to focus on personal development, such as studying or pursuing personal interests, without the added responsibilities of unplanned pregnancies. Therefore, all these factors combined can serve as strong motivators for couples to consider and practice family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually provides a valid reason to motivate couples, making the comprehensive answer D the most appropriate.
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